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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,106 questions • 10,002 answers • 1,048,852 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,106 questions • 10,002 answers • 1,048,852 learners
I was recently given this sentence:
Eugenia (entender) ______ que no podamos ir.
I got it correct and know the form of "entender" to be used, but I have a side question: Why is "podamos" in the subjunctive here? Why not the indicative?
In the example given:
"¿Tienes algún problema? No, pero gracias por preguntar."
Why is it not "algúnas" to match the gender of problema?
cuándocuando
Hi,
I did a search on your site to find out the above, but there were not results.
Do you have a lesson/guidelines on how to form adjectives from country names?
In the quiz there were names of countries and I couldn't tell how to form the plural adjective.
Thank you, Nicole
I was just marked wrong when I answered a test question with 'hemos sido'. I was told that the correct answer was 'hemos sidos.' There is no sidos in the conjugation that I can find. What is this?
Hi!
After going through this lesson, I understand that these endings are used to soften the words, and in some cases I understand why you would use it, but there are also some cases where I'm not sure why you would use it. For example, for "hace calorcillo", why would you want to soften this sentence? I can't see what the meaning would be?
For Question 8 I answered 'trabaje' believing it to be the correct subjunctive form but it was marked incorrect and 'trabaja' was given as the correct answer. Would you please explain. Many thanks.
Why is the first sentence future and not present?
Hola Inma,
In your response (at the bottom of this thread) you mention: "that is seen later on for irregular adjectives." I did a search for "irregular adjectives" but did not find one on this particular topic. Can you refer me to the lesson you had in mind in your answer?
Thank you?
Nicole
In the quiz I just did, the question was: “¡Qué ________ tiene ese hombre!” and the answer was manazas. Is there a reason that Mano with an “o” ending becomes Manazas and not Manazos? Is it simply because Mano is feminine even though it ends with an “o”?
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