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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,831 answers • 1,014,006 learners
One of the listening exercises uses the parase "martes y trece" which I believe would translate to "Tuesday the 13th". Please consider adding that method of stating a date to the lesson on dates as I checked and there is no current discussion or example of this usage that I could find. Thanks for all you do!
Hello, in this example linked to the lesson : So my question is when is it antes de and when is it antes que ? Is antes de only for temporal subjects (antes de la cena...) ? And is there also después que ? Thank you.
No es justo que vosotros antes que nosotros. (It's not fair that you'll die before us.) HINT: Conjugate "morir" in El Presente de Subjuntivo.
Hi. I remember learning that when we almost do something in the past, then we use the present tense, so that ¡casi me desmayé! would be ¡casi me desmayo!
Is this right or wrong or an acceptable alternative in speaking or writing?
Thanks
Stuart
Hi,
The two problems with use of English posted some time ago are still not fixed. Hence, I'm still struggling to get to grips with this lesson.
"If I went to the hairdresser's" in English means; "If I were to go". They are equivqlent.
Similarly. "If he had an accident" is equivalent to " if he were to have an accident".
In both cases, the first sentence is common usage. The second using the the subjunctive is very uncommon in everyday English.
In the sentence:
"En mi opinión, debemos reducir su consumo para dormir mejor."
The instruction tells you to use the verb "disminuir." ??
In the question:
They will be very cold when they go to Scotland next December.
It seems to me that this is a quite certain plan, like one of the examples here: ‘ Cuando voy de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedo en el hotel Olimpia.’
So I thought the answer should be in the indicative:
Tendrán mucho frío cuando irán a Escocia el próximo diciembre.
But the correct answer was in the subjunctive:
Tendrán mucho frío cuando vayan a Escocia el próximo diciembre.
Why is that? Is it a mistake?
[A comment rather than a question]: All '-erir' verbs [apart from the barely used 'enjerir'] change the e to ie:, e.g. sugerir, referir, preferir, diferir, transferir, requerir and a host of others. A similar rule applies to [all !] '-vertir' verbs: convertir, divertir(se), etc. etc.... On the other hand, all '-etir', '-edir' and '-egir' verbs adopt the e>i change.... With help from a CD which enabled words to be listed in reverse-alphabetical order, I examined the contents of my CLAVE dictionary, and posted the results in http://dlmcn.com/ir_verbs.html (the accents are properly represented in http://DLMcN.com/irverbs.doc ).
Hello,
I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'
The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'
But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.
Thanks!
I don’t understand the use of present perfect in telling past events.
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