Spanish language Q&A Forum

I know that the rule is to use sino que when there is a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino.  If it is the same verb, we don't need to use it at all: Juan no bebía vino sino ron.   But what if we decide to include the verb?  Then do we use sino que (even though it is not a different verb?). Juan no bebía vino sino que ron.

I would appreciate your help on this one.

I will tell my son that you have called.    VS

I will tell my son that you called.

Le dire a mi hijo que lllamaste.

Another common idiom is "no ver la hora (de)"

¡No veo la hora! - I can't wait!

or

No veo la hora de volver a casa. - I can't wait to return home.

Hi!
After going through this lesson, I understand that these endings are used to soften the words, and in some cases I understand why you would use it, but there are also some cases where I'm not sure why you would use it. For example, for "hace calorcillo", why would you want to soften this sentence? I can't see what the meaning would be? 

I noticed that nunca goes after nosotros,yo,él/ella, but not estoy. Why is that

Hi,

I was wondering why this sentence uses the indicativo in the si-clause:

"me dijo que si la regaba y crecía como una planta, tendría un perro"

Isn't the mom seeing this condition as something not at all likely to happen? Does not the use of the conditional in the main clause also indicate that it is less likely and therefore require the subjunctivo?

Thanks!

Deborah