Spanish language Q&A Forum

That sentence "yo huelo siempre bien" translates to I always smell good.

"huelo" in this sense means for the subject to have a scent, not like "I always smell something good"

The sentence "nosotros olemos las rosas del jardín" translates to we smell the roses in the garden.

in this sense, "olemos" means to physically perceive a smell

So it has two meanings kind of like how it does in English, am I understanding this right?

In this lesson, peninsular Spanish is specified (however I am in the US and speak Spanish with Cubans, Mexicans, etc., so not only is this sort of new to me, it's not clear how useful it is). From what I've heard & read, there are many differences in the Americas in how the simple and compound past tenses are used (e.g., https://www.scribd.com/document/148697440/El-sistema-verbal-del-espanol-de-America-De-la-temporalidad-a-la-aspectualidad-Quesada-Pacheco-Espanol-actual-75-2001). If we include both peninsular and American (and other world) Spanish speakers, this is quite a range of variants. English speakers have a parallel set of past tenses in went/has gone. Obviously this is a false friend when compared to a specific dialect of Spanish such as the peninsular dialect (although I wonder how perfectly consistent this is across the peninsula). But is the English parallel any more “false” than the Ecuadorian, Peruvian, or Mexican one, relative to the peninsular one? How would a Spaniard respond if an American Spanish speaker consistently used the false English parallel to these tenses, compared to their response to an Ecuadorian, Peruvian, or Mexican speaker who consistently used their own native variant?

Thanks,

Greg Shenaut

I put "Acabo de comprar un apartamento "  and that was not shown as a possible answer for "I just bought an apartment " but I believe it is correct.

One question was ____________  mucha niebla. Hay or esta.  I used esta wrong.  In fact mucha is never even translated.   So why is it Hay, not esta and why isn’t mucha translated