Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is it wrong to put.   "No  tenía una casa"?    i.e  include "una"   in the translation of :  I didn't have a house.

Al responder a este artículo: https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/reading/como-escribir-un-correo-electronico-formal?utm_source=blk&utm_medium=email&utm_campaign=msg_480529

https://www.italki.com/article/1301/how-to-write-an-email-for-conducting-business-in-spanish?bsft_eid=7c3899e9-4eb8-415f-8eb1-1c028b244b2f&bsft_pid=2479a3d5-3d2e-4e2c-93e3-5c0996f14489&utm_campaign=recommended_articles&utm_source=internal&utm_medium=email&utm_content=an&internal_source=internal&internal_medium=email&internal_campaign=recommended_articles_an&bsft_clkid=63adaec3-6758-4a60-9832-e9214d736283&bsft_uid=e0a1326b-1433-40f3-89c8-6f220de4f523&bsft_mid=8f7ce1ef-abd1-4a40-9dc3-940345f723ad&bsft_pp=1&bsft_ek=2019-11-13T12%3A01%3A22Z

Solo para la información.

¿Cuántos euros te quedan en la cartera? -Me quedan ochenta.
How many euros do you have left in your purse? -I have eighty left. 

The above is using preterite translated to present perfect. This is a subject I have some trouble understanding. Wondering if quedar is one of those examples of language that doesn't translate exactly and have to accept it as an expression used and not over think it?

Hola,

In the explanation for the following sentence, it's mentioned that one of the subjunctive possibilities is that it might snow later:

Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.

My question is: because we are using nevando, rather than nieva - is that not telling us it is snowing right now (present participle), and therefore can't be a future event?

So, the only possibility is that it is subjunctive because it is shared information that it is snowing right now?

Gracias,

Vivo en España - aquí usamos la palabra ‘unos’ o algunos..para mi este lección es confuso 

I'm very confused by the explanation regarding the use of indirect and direct object pronouns with hacer + infinitive. The lesson says that indirect object pronouns are used with intransitive verbs, but shows direct object pronouns (lo) with the intransitive verb "arrodillarse". The lesson then says that direct object pronouns are used with transitive verbs, but then shows indirect object pronouns (les) with the transitive verb "pedir (pardón)". Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding?

I'm also confused by the difference between the example in the lesson and the example sentence further below:

The lesson teaches: 
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor"
He made them apologise to the teacher.

But the examples sentences below show:

Los ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.
I am completely confused :(

Hello!

In the example, ¿"Una iglesia"? ¿Qué es eso?, why is it eso and not esa?

The following was a post made 11 months ago.  It seems the problem is not completely fixed Inma as the same thing has just happened to me.

Uh no. So in one lesson you guys said calor was feminine. Even though in three years of Spanish I've always only seen it as masculine. But in fact it can be either according to the RAE. Now in this lesson I marked it as feminine and you guys say I'm wrong. So you guys need to fix this answer or at least be consistent.

Hola A

Yes, that was a mistake on our part and I just fixed it.

If you see something unusual you can send us a message and we will be very happy to sort it out : )

Hola Foro y los expertos

Tengo una pregunta a propósito de la part de la oración  'pero he de insistir en que vayas a Córdoba'. 

Por qué, usamos 'en' aquí.  No es  possible decirlo igualmente sin 'en', 'pero he de insistir que vayas a Córdoba'.