Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,083 questions • 9,962 answers • 1,039,813 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,083 questions • 9,962 answers • 1,039,813 learners
Why was the English translation of the Spanish question misleading?.. It should have been written as.... The lady waited for the doctor for 40 minutes...
I am having some difficulties with this sentence: Los empleados de la tienda se quedaron perplejos.
Why is quedarse used here and not quedar? I went back to the lesson that deals with the differences and therein both are used with an adjective or participle to express the result of an action (=quedar) or change (=quedarse). For quedar + adjective, it is also written that the meaning is rather "to end up", and I feel like it fits well in the sentence above: they ended up perplexed due to what Beru did.
Could both be correct in this context?
Thanks!
Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban". Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?
Can I use it to say: we were hopinng that he would do ...?
Let's see when you find a good job! -- I think that this could be answered with either form of cuando/cuándo depending on context:
Let's see (at what point in time - cuádo) you find a good job.
Let's see (when (if) you find a good job - cuando)
I chose the latter and was marked wrong.
In one of the examples, "las legumbres" is translated as "pulses". Shouldn't that be "legumes"?
If the construction starts with “si prefieres X....” isn’t “si preferías X...” also correct?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level