Viernes, mi día favoritoHello lovely people, it's Friday which means we get a new set of weekend workouts, literally my best part of the week.
Inma, I love the dictations, even though I'm not very good at them yet, however I have two general questions about them, and wondered if you could help.
1. Vocabulary - When I listen to lessons, even lessons A1, I encounter vocabulary that I don't know. When the dictacions are written, are you using this as an opportunity to expand our vocabulary, or are you writing within what you expect us to know? I don't mind which, I just wondered if my vocab is weak. I use it as a learning opportunity!
2. English translation - I believe that the dictations are the only place where we don't see an English translation of what was said / written. Is this intentional? As per my point above, I sometimes don't know the words even when they are written, and I use SpanishDict to translate. This has some disadvantages, for example in today's A1 exercise, Spanishdict translated "partes" meant as anywhere in your text, to "private parts", as in on a human :-)
Thanks, now back to work.
Hi, what’s the difference between por donde and donde?
Thanks so much
Shirley.
The answer to ‘they were about to finish their exam’ is given as ‘Han estado a punto de...’
there’s no sense that this is the situation of ‘but something intervened’, and it doesn’t feel like a natural ‘perfecto’ tense to me, more just an action in the past. So I’m wondering why the perfecto was chosen here?
Hello lovely people, it's Friday which means we get a new set of weekend workouts, literally my best part of the week.
Inma, I love the dictations, even though I'm not very good at them yet, however I have two general questions about them, and wondered if you could help.
1. Vocabulary - When I listen to lessons, even lessons A1, I encounter vocabulary that I don't know. When the dictacions are written, are you using this as an opportunity to expand our vocabulary, or are you writing within what you expect us to know? I don't mind which, I just wondered if my vocab is weak. I use it as a learning opportunity!
2. English translation - I believe that the dictations are the only place where we don't see an English translation of what was said / written. Is this intentional? As per my point above, I sometimes don't know the words even when they are written, and I use SpanishDict to translate. This has some disadvantages, for example in today's A1 exercise, Spanishdict translated "partes" meant as anywhere in your text, to "private parts", as in on a human :-)
Thanks, now back to work.
I don't understand why I am told that it should be "Alberto llora MUY a menudo".
Everything; the lesson included; tells me it should be "mucho".
I thought that ' el billete de tren' had a determiner - 'el' as opposed to the general 'un billete de tren'. Please explain
In this lesson, peninsular Spanish is specified (however I am in the US and speak Spanish with Cubans, Mexicans, etc., so not only is this sort of new to me, it's not clear how useful it is). From what I've heard & read, there are many differences in the Americas in how the simple and compound past tenses are used (e.g., https://www.scribd.com/document/148697440/El-sistema-verbal-del-espanol-de-America-De-la-temporalidad-a-la-aspectualidad-Quesada-Pacheco-Espanol-actual-75-2001). If we include both peninsular and American (and other world) Spanish speakers, this is quite a range of variants. English speakers have a parallel set of past tenses in went/has gone. Obviously this is a false friend when compared to a specific dialect of Spanish such as the peninsular dialect (although I wonder how perfectly consistent this is across the peninsula). But is the English parallel any more “false” than the Ecuadorian, Peruvian, or Mexican one, relative to the peninsular one? How would a Spaniard respond if an American Spanish speaker consistently used the false English parallel to these tenses, compared to their response to an Ecuadorian, Peruvian, or Mexican speaker who consistently used their own native variant?
Thanks,
Greg Shenaut
In another lesson titled "Como, cuando, donde, quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish," it states that "Hablaré con ella cuando llegue a casa" translates to "I will speak to her whenever she arrives home." The term "whenever" implies uncertainty, suggesting that we do not know when she will arrive and indicating a future context. However, in this lesson, the sentence "Cuando vaya de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedaré en el hotel Olimpia" only implies a future context without conveying the sense of uncertainty as in the previous example ("whenever she arrives"). Therefore, I am curious: does "cuando" + present subjunctive mean "when" or "whenever"? Both examples refer to the future.
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