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5,630 questions • 8,997 answers • 873,830 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,630 questions • 8,997 answers • 873,830 learners
In a question requiring the answer "Sevilla es una de las ciudades más bonitas de España" I put en instead of de and was marked incorrect. However, as the lesson states, this isn't incorrect but simply 'less common'. In fact, isn't it so that a closer translation of the 'de' here might be '...one of the most beautiful Spanish cities' rather than '...cities in Spain'?
Hola,
Is there a lesson which develops this theme, and discusses when the definite article is used with the noun in the body of a sentence - and if there are times when this is not the case?
Thanks. John
RE" ¿Eres de Inglaterra?
Are you from England? (you=tú)
Hello, I hope you and the team are all doing well and keeping healthy!I have a question on the above:I'm suppose that means are you a native of England. But let's suppose that person came from England, but the person was visiting England and coming from there, would he/she still say:" Soy de Inglaterra"? Or would he/she have to totally rephrase it, and explain that they were visiting. How would you then state that you're from England, as you came from there.Thank you,NicoleThis asked if this was correct. I put no as mar is a masculine noun, but this was marked as incorrect. The dictionary states it is a masculine noun. On the explanation this it states that it can be feminine in a poetic sense. This phrase is not in my opinion poetic but an observation.
Can you please explain this. Thanks
With "tener que + infinitive" do you have to attach the pronoun to the infinitive or can it also be placed before "tener"?
Example: Tengo que lavarme las manos.
Me tengo que lavar las manos.
Are both sentences correct or is only the first sentence correct?
So, is it incorrect to say - Debo comer- Is the use of deber covered in other lessons?
Thanks
I'm very confused by the explanation regarding the use of indirect and direct object pronouns with hacer + infinitive. The lesson says that indirect object pronouns are used with intransitive verbs, but shows direct object pronouns (lo) with the intransitive verb "arrodillarse". The lesson then says that direct object pronouns are used with transitive verbs, but then shows indirect object pronouns (les) with the transitive verb "pedir (pardón)". Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding?
I'm also confused by the difference between the example in the lesson and the example sentence further below:
The lesson teaches:
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor"
He made them apologise to the teacher.
But the examples sentences below show:
Los ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.
I am completely confused :(
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