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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,963 questions • 9,761 answers • 998,983 learners
I think I can understand why "... se puede ver a las ballenas jorobadas retozando, coqueteando ..." is correct - [meaning: "... one can see the humpback whales ...", or "... you can see ..."] - after reading your Kwiziq lessons " Using se debe/se puede to say You must/you can (impersonal sentences) " [number 6933] and " Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one " [number 5132].
However - under 'Your Practice', you recommend the lesson " Forming the Spanish passive with se (la pasiva refleja) " [number 6089] - which seems more consistent with this answer: "... se pueden ver las ballenas jorobadas"? (i.e. with 'pueden' in the plural, and without the "a" [before the 'las']). Would this^ be a correct way of saying "... the humpback whales can be seen ..."?
"Cuál es" works just fine in Mexico to ask "what is". Just because you haven't introduced it in the lesson yet shouldn't make it wrong. The problem with learning formal speech is that nobody talks like this in every day Life. People don't speak proper English in America, and they don't in Latin America either. The same with "me llamó" v "llamó" In Mexico they don't always say me llamó José, just llamó José. Both are right, they know what I'm saying. I want to learn both proper and common speech. Just learning the proper leads to a lot of confusion when you get to where you're going. Nobody talks completely proper, in fact English is so infused with Spanish, they have many made up spanglish words. When you go into a local neighborhood if you speak proper they don't know what you're saying. Really! No one says como se llama usted, me llamo José. They just stare at you like you're a snob.
Lo siento por la novela
Newbie here: I’ve always been told that Spanish accent is usually on the penultimate vowel, and only the exceptions need an explicit tilde mark.
However, there are conjugations, like actuéis where the accent mark is on the penultimate vowel. I would have thought that the accent wasn’t needed anymore. Any place I could go to with a fuller explanation?
Thanks.
At the other hand there are no examples for "por.
Can "por" also be interpreted as "by"
Why does Inma say "Estoy casada..." I would think that being married would use "ser" since it is considered to be a permanent state of being rather than temporary.
hi room and experts
Please clarify why 'tener + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object, whereas this rule does not apply in 'haber + participio cases'
For example - Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)
He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)
Shouldn't it be se viste instead of viste?
Could you not say Ven instead of Veis?
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