Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is it "fue (indefinido) muy emocionante" but "mis contrincantes eran (imperfecto) muy bueno"?

And why is it "fue muy emocionante" rather than "estaba / estuve muy emocionante"?  There is a lesson entitled "Using estar (not ser) when talking about emotions".

Luis told me where he had gone on holiday. : Luis me dijo ___ había ido de vacaciones.

The stated answer is “dónde” (with an accent), but this usage seems to be that of a relative pronoun. What am I missing? Why is it “dónde” (with an accent)

I thought it should have been una reunión de negocias but that was marked as incorrect. Is it always the case that a noun modifying another noun comes in its original form or is it a special case for "negocios"?

Hola,

I thought assumption about the past (must have + verb) was expressed by means of DEBE (Deber in El Presented) + Infinitivo Compuesto, however the following examples refute it:

Los chicos han debido de beber bastante porque huelen a alcohol.
They boys must have drunk quite a lot as they smell of alcohol.

El tren debió de llegar sobre las cuatro y media.
The train must have arrived at about four thirty.

Could you please clarify this point, because I'm feeling a bit confused 

On the question:

Mamá, ________

Why wouldn't "cómo está" be a correct answer? Wouldn't it be formal when speaking to a parent?

Thank you!

I know for "¡Ni loca te presto dinero!" if you want to use "ni que fuera" it goes: "Ni que fuera loca. . . " but what do you replace "presto" with? i.e. "Ni que fuera loca te ___ dinero."

This lesson says:

"In Spanish, to express that someone "would have [done something]" in the past, we use the auxiliary verb haber.

Haber [ìn the conditional simple] + participle of main verb"

However wouldn't you use the perfect conditional to say "would have"?