Spanish language Q&A Forum

The lesson states that if the subject is the same in both clauses you would omit que and use the infinitive in the second clause. Why is the subjunctive and not the infinitive used in the following example?

 Nosotros preferiríamos que fuésemos al restaurante del centro.

is it correct to say "no veo la hora de que se vayan" instead of "no veo la hora en que se vayan"? is there a difference?

Is the following example correct, as I want to add an "un"?

 "Se vende apartamento de lujo en la playa. A luxurious apartment is for sale at the beach." 

Thank you Silvia ! ... It was probably more like a C2-level exercise, but we do of course benefit from having to make that extra effort ... Un abrazo - David M

I have both asked my Spanish teacher in Peru and done some research online to see if I could find any source that would have "lo mismo" meaning maybe in any context. It is possibly an error? 

Hello! Unless I am missing something, I was provided a question in the drop-down where I had to pick the correct conjugation of tener with the imperfect subj. It seems to be that both tuviera and tuvieses should be accepted, however only "tuviera" was. If tuvieses is not accepted, it should not be listed in the drop down. Perhaps you can fix this? Gracias.

Hello, I'm currently struggling with remembering past tense verbs with and without stem changes. Please help