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5,793 questions • 9,477 answers • 947,098 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,793 questions • 9,477 answers • 947,098 learners
"Natillas Danone, listas para gustar" o quiza haya otra versión(?)
https://youtu.be/gDv_qnmnOF4?si=KTLr_-I9w46UbYLO
Below is the text from the lesson explaining your options with "por si/por si acaso". All of the examples use the imperfect subjective, but the fact that was the only option wasn't really clear until I read through the comments/questions.
From the Lesson: They introduce a subordinate clause expressing a condition. They can be followed by the subjunctive or the indicative.
I'm breathless from just listening to the vocal race to the end. I'll bet there was some turrón waiting . . .
Este texto no es largo. Tienen textos mas mas largos :) . Lo se, ya que he aprendido casi cada texto de niveles A1 y A2 y , los me ayudan mucho hablar y entender! Gracias por su trabajo!
Since both the Present Perfect "hemos podido viajar" and Preterite "pudimos viajar" are correct for this question (it is both limited to a set past time period and the speaker is obviously involved in the action), shouldn't the lesson explain that sometimes both options are acceptable?
In the last sentence, why was it not appropriate to use "cualquiera" for the word "any"?
Thank you
Pati Ecuamiga
One of the options for a mini kwiz question, ""Suspendió el examen, no porque ________ sino porque ese día no se sentía bien." As I understood it, no porque could be used with either subjunctive or indicative and not change the meaning. Why isn't "no porque no iba a estudiar" an option along with the other two examples (which were subjunctive).
There are a number of good questions below about the use of the preterite vs the imperfect. There is some confusion about the speaker choosing to bend the rules in order to express an action in a certain way. This is a very useful topic and might be a good lesson of its own, "When the speaker bends the rules for a specific reason".
Hi Inma
Am I right to assume that these essentially translate into English as the same thing? Otherwise, could you explain any other differences in meaning that might exist?
1) Su avión ha debido retrasarse
2) Su avión debe haberse retrasado
AND that adding 'de' also makes no difference to the meaning (other than maybe 'strengthening' the assumption as we learned about here: Spanish modal verb Deber versus Deber de (obligation and assumption))?
Saludos
In the quiz question with the answers "We have to be patient with our teenage children.
We need to be patient with our teenage children."
As a native English speaker, I don't understand the distinction being made between these two options. They seem synonymous.
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