Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Team Kwiziq,

Is it incorrect to place the No in a  No...nunca construction before the pronoun? I notice that one can say "No comes chocolate nunca" which made me believe that the no is always at the beginning of the sentence.

However "No nostotros te mentiríamos nunca" was incorrect and so was "No él estuvo intersesado".  I am guessing that no can be in front of a verb where the pronoun is implied (comes) but not in front of an  explicit subject pronoun (tú comes). Is this correct? Can you elaborate?

I am a bit confused here. Below are two responses which I got wrong. In both cases the "hint" is that it is a "future idea". So why should one of them be indicative and the other subjunctive? "Even if you don't want to" I put in the subjunctive because there seemed to be a bit of doubt, and that was marked wrong. "Even if you do extra hours" I put in the indicative because it seemed that that was definitely going to happen.

I think this is a very complicated and nuanced piece of grammar so I would appreciate some help, thank you.

PS I tried to include a screenshot of my answers but the system wouldn't let me.

I get this message a lot :

You took this Kwiz 2 days, 20 hours ago.

This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.

"Natillas Danone, listas para gustar" o quiza haya otra versión(?)

https://youtu.be/gDv_qnmnOF4?si=KTLr_-I9w46UbYLO

In the listening exercise is the phrase "para que la casa esté fresquita."

On the Futuro simple page (https://spanish.kwiziq.com/revision/glossary/verb-tense-mood/futuro-simple) I couldn't find any page for "estar" in the future tense.

Is "esté" the 1st person singular of estar in futuro simple?
Or does it come from a different word?

It's not quite true that English has only two demonstratives - there's an older word still in common use at least in the North of England, usefully equivalent to 'aquel':

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/yonder

It's in wider use in the phrase 'wild blue yonder'

¿Podría ser correcto usar ambas verbos en el pretérito indefinido para decir algo diferente? 

Por ejemplo "cuando vine a casa, ví el nuevo coche" en vez de "cuando venía a casa, ví el nuevo coche", para decir que lo ví inmediatamente después de que hubiera llegado (una acción cumplida, no interrumpida). 

Eso me parecería lógico y algo similar sí se puede usar en inglés, pero  ¿tiene sentido o es correcto en Español, o hay una forma distinta de decir algo así?

Espero que lo haya explicado suficiente claro... Muchas gracias.

Hi,

I don't understand why "estar" is in subjuntivo instead of indicativo.