Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,916 questions • 9,670 answers • 975,214 learners
I'll be right with you...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,916 questions • 9,670 answers • 975,214 learners
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
For the example:
De no llegar a tiempo perderíamos el vuelo.
If we didn't arrive on time we'd miss the flight.
I can only see four translations:(1) If we don't arrive on time we'll miss the flight. (or "we could miss")(2) If we hadn't arrived on time we would/could have missed the flight.
Could you please double-check your English translation? Thanks.
I think trifle is British English. Can someone tell me what it means in American English?
Why is it "las puertas y ventanas" and not "las puertas y las ventanas"? Usually Spanish seems to have two definite articles where English has only one.
Notice how in Spanish we need toadd "y" between the tens and the units (cincuenta y cuatro). Three thousand six hundred and six.
(HINT: Write the number in letters in Spanish (not digits))Three thousand six hundred and six.(HINT: Write the number in letters in Spanish (not digits))Three thousand six hundred and six.(HINT: Write the number in letters in Spanish (not digits)) But there’s no y in this correct answer: Tres mil seiscientos seisNamely, adding a 'dr' to the stem before the regular endings.
I will leave ... Saldré
I will put ... Pondré
Is there a rule? Only for -er and -ir verbs?
We want exercises with answers would be very useful
I don't understand the significance of !Qué bárbaro! in the second paragraph. It seems out of place in relation to the description of the dessert, but I'm sure I don't fully understand its meaning. According to my dictionary, it translates to "how barbaric" --- but why would it be characterized in that manner?
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level