Spanish language Q&A Forum

De lejos, habria es actual en inglais. pero me cuento que utilizo habre.

…but I’ve just realised why I get confused about when to use the subjunctive after ‘no sé que…’ (‘I don’t know that…’) or ‘no sé qué…’ (‘I don’t know which/what…’), now I realise that I should use the subjunctive in the first case and not in the second. Thank you! 

Hello,

I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:

Tú hueles a perfume fresco. 

or

Las galletas huelen a chocolate.

So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".

So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?

Thank you!

Three of the verbs have another word in front of them.  Please tell me about these words.

Why ot is duro, not dura? Duro for trabajo??

Sorry, I understand my mistake now - please disregard.

In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."

A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."

I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.

So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?

How does one use porcentajes with this?

I wonder what the purpose of the subtle but significant change of meaning in Tanta luz no es buena to mean "This much light is not good." instead of "So much light is not good?"

If one is hired as a translator, I don't think one would take it upon oneself to make a change of the speaker's meaning in such a way.