Spanish language Q&A Forum

I wonder what the purpose of the subtle but significant change of meaning in Tanta luz no es buena to mean "This much light is not good." instead of "So much light is not good?"

If one is hired as a translator, I don't think one would take it upon oneself to make a change of the speaker's meaning in such a way.

Notice how in Spanish we need toadd "y" between the tens and the units (cincuenta y cuatro). Three thousand six hundred and six.

Why ot is duro, not dura? Duro for trabajo??

Sorry, I understand my mistake now - please disregard.

Hello! I don't see the transcription. I spent time transcribing my understanding of this, and I hope I will be able to check my answer. -A

I don't understand why Indefinido is used in the example; "Nos gustamos desde el primer momento." It has a definite starting point, but the sentence implies a continuing action. In this case could Imperfecto also be used correctly?

Hello,

I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:

Tú hueles a perfume fresco. 

or

Las galletas huelen a chocolate.

So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".

So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?

Thank you!

the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.

but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.

please correct me if I am wrong.