Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the examples of  "¿Quién prepara la fiesta a Sofía?" and "Nosotros les preparamos la cena a nuestros invitados."

Why use 'a' instead of 'para' (for) or 'por' (on behalf of)?

Ricky

Hi room, experts

Please explain translation 'its difficult for corruption to disappear from the country' in Spanish 'Es difícil que la corrupción desaparezca del país'. 

I understand your translation but I am wondering, can this also be written in the indicative. 

For example could I not also write, 'Es difícil por la corrupción de desaparecer del país'?

On the quiz, there was the statement "El hecho de que yo quiera ir al concierto contigo no nos hace pareja." I thought hechos (facts) were expressed in the indicative? 

Why is it “trabajo como” I work as 

and “trabaja de” I work as

What’s the difference? Thanks!

Sorry, Im a little confussed.

Before I attempt to answer this, isn't patience an adjective (modifying Victor, the noun).  Or is it referring to "few patients (pacientes)- not little patience" as a quantity?  

In otherwords, I believe paciencia is an adjective (quality - not quantity), and I think the poco would be a modifier and not be changed.  It would stay poco. Right?

But if the word was patients (pacientes- quantitiy of patients), then the poco would change to poca, because paciente is a feminine noun.

I notice from the examples that hacerse seems to be used (with few exceptions) when the change is under your control or voluntary. This is logical because you are "making yourself" change.

And quedarse means "keep", suggesting that you're stuck with the change permanently!

This seems to help me. I hope it helps other students.

(Sorry, this is not really a question, but a hopefully helpful comment.)

Colloquially in English we often use the future tense to express present probabilities or predictions, just like the Spanish.  E.g. We could say "I'm not sure where John is, but he'll be practising his Spanish I should think."  Or "Do you think Fred has arrived home yet? Oh, he'll be relaxing with his feet up by now." 

¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?

Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:

In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?