Aunque +subjunctive vs indicativeCould someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
Los adultos compran este calendario para los niños porque tienen chocolates y son deliciosos.
Tienen is plural while calendario is singular. So who have the chocolates? The adults or the children? Neither makes sense.
This sentence is funny in a way because you could read as the children have chocolates and the children are delicious. I guess the adults buy the calendar to lull the children, to capture them and eat them. Yum, delicious children:-)
These rules for verb tenses when using por si/por si acaso are really hard to keep straight. Does it sound really awful to a native speaker if we get it wrong?
There was a question in the test where the correct answer was:
´Las islas canarias SON en el oceáno atlántio´
Why is it ´SON´ and not ´ESTÁN´?
These seem to have similar constructions for similar meanings (interim completion of an action that may continue). Is there a distinction between them I'm not getting?
"Hurry, Run!" Can I interpret "Hurry" as Command, too? If so, none of the options is appropriate.
Could someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
hi, the last sentence says 'i like travelling by train'.
Why is 'viajar por tren' wrong? and when do we use 'en' for transport?
Thanks
So, here it says así así means so so and I remember learning that in school as well, but I've had a few different native speakers tell me that they don't say that, and they're more likely to say mas o menos. Is así así primarily used in Spain? Or is it an older saying?
Thanks!
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