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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,029 questions • 9,856 answers • 1,017,505 learners
You wrote: "With verbs that imply movement we can use all the forms:", with example ¿Adónde vas Manuel?
Does than mean that "Adonde vas Manuel" and "donde vas Manuel" are correct? The examples only have the forms adónde and dónde
I'm confused about what the difference is between these two words.
¡Hola! Leí una página que indica que "a menos de que" es un dequeísmo y no es correcto (aunque si lo uso, se entiende). ¿Es así? ¿O hay una diferencia entre los dos que depende en lo que viene antes y después? Y sea lo que sea, eso se aplica a otros tal como "con tal de que," "antes de que," y "después de que?"
Why does the affirmative phrase use "tener celos" while the negative phrase uses "ser celosa"?Yo creo que Marta tiene celos.
Yo no creo que María sea celosa.I think Marta is jealous.
I don't think María is jealous.
Thanks!
could you, please, explain why " mi corazón me iba a explotar/estalar" is not valid? I' ve always had a problem with this kind of expression.
Saludos
Ελισάβετ
I recall that an earlier lesson mentioned the phrase "entre si" meaning "among themselves". The pronoun "si" seems to be the object version of the reflexive pronoun "se". When following the preposition "con", it also contracts to "consigo" just like "conmigo" and "contigo". The word "consigo" is also the same form as the first person present tense indicative mode of "conseguir". Maybe these discussions can be added to this lesson? Also, let me know if the pronoun "si" carries an accent or not. I think there is but I am not sure. Thank you.
I had to look up and remind myself about the two possible derivatives of "bendecir" - i.e. bendecido [participle] and bendito [adjective]. Clarification was necessary because I remembered that the future tense of "bendecir" is 'regular' - i.e. "bendeciré" - [unlike decir > diré].
Another 'peculiar' change which might be worth mentioning in this lesson is the way in which "pudrir" becomes "podrido" when forming its past participle.
Of possible interest too, is the pair "corrompido" [participle] as opposed to "corrupto" [adjective]; (we never see "corroto").
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
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