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5,626 questions • 8,981 answers • 872,682 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,626 questions • 8,981 answers • 872,682 learners
“Nunca hubieras pensado que hubiese tantas formas de disculparse.” Hola, this sentence is from the B2 Listening exercise on how to apologize in spanish. I don’t know why Nunca triggers the imperfect subjunctive. Maybe this example could be included in the examples in this lesson? Muchas gracias, Shirley.
The choices include c) salgan and d) hayan salido. Aren't both of these subjunctive? The correct answer was c), salgan. I read through the lesson fairly thoroughly and don't see why hayan salido would not be correct as well. What am I missing? Thanks!
the lesson note wrote that due to english's influence, we do use en
then it says en can be used to mean within a time period such as en una hora = in, within one hour
is this use not recommended too? if so, what is the spanish correct way of saying within an hour etc?
the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.
but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.
please correct me if I am wrong.
¿Se puede usar solo "cuales" como pronombre relativo? ¿O se necessita siempre usa con el/la/los?
In the tip it says - Unlike in English where as if is often followed by a past tense in the indicative, in Spanish como si can never be followed by a tense in the indicative or El Presente de Subjuntivo, or El Pretérito Perfecto Subjuntivo. But there is a C1 lesson that is about using como si followed by the indicative. Is this tip incorrect, or am I missing something?
I appear to be stuck at 96.2% no matter how many times I answer correctly.
Hi,
In many lessons and responses to questions, I have read that when deciding if you are to use imperfecto or indefinido, it is up to how the speaker thinks about the event. If the speaker thinks the event had a clear start and end, you should use indefinido, and if not you use imperfecto. Does this mean that it is entirely up to the speaker to decide which past tense is correct? I understand that there are situations where it is clear which is right and wrong, but I feel like in many cases it is a bit more ambiguous.
Is it correct, in addition to "Whose books are those?" that this could also be translated as "From whom are those books?" I realize that in a perfect world, the context would clear up any ambiguity, but am I correct that the latter is a valid translation?
Thanks!
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