Spanish language Q&A Forum

No seas tonto.   It feels like we are describing a temporary condition. Why is ser used?

Many years ago in a Mexican Spanish school I was taught that in a sentence like.  No creo que Susana venga/haya venido hoy only those 2 options are correct. The imperfect and pluperfect subjunctive are only used if the verb in the main clause is in a past tense. There seems to be disagreement on this topic. What does RAE say?  Is there regional variation on this topic?

I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?"  (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone  "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."

Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?

I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...

i read that ir + gerund can be translated as to get to do something.

I do not understand why would getting on to do something be related to the concept of doing something bit by bit, gradually?

Would getting on to do something more like getting ready to do something using estar para, estar por?

Can "lo malo de . . ." in the last sentence also be translated as "la mala cosa . . ."?

I see that “el” and “la” are based off masculine or feminine. How do I know if a general noun (e.g. car) is masculine or feminine tense?

i think that a better answer to question would be "i am someone who really enjoys doing sports", rather than "i am more someone...". because otherwise it should have been "yo soy mas de hacer deporte"

NOT OK Por favor Marta, les trae unas copas de vino.

but it is wrong. Why this below is correct answer? I though the "les" can be put in front of verb and behind.

 OK Por favor Marta, tráeles unas copas de vino.

So cnfusing and it's just B1 😢

I'm reassured to see that even Mexican reporters sometimes conjugate their verbs incorrectly.