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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,018 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,409 learners
I understand that some verbs are stem changing. In the example of "e" to "ie" verbs, the last "e" of the stem turns into "ie". This rule seems to be true for verbs like nevar (nieva), but why not verbs like "tener"?
The "this may be closer to latin amercian spanish" warning came up in this exercise, for a part of the text given as a hint!
"A las cuatro, tengo entrenamiento de fútbol."
I don't want to quibble about details with native teachers but I was puzzled by the tip box at the bottom of this lesson saying "Remember that after poder(conjugated in any tense) you will always find an infinitive. "
I'm unsure what to make of this given that I have not always found an infinitive after poder. The example that immediately came to mind was "No puedo más." Which I stuck out in my mind precisely because I found it odd that "puedo" was NOT followed by another verb.
Which one is correct:
Tres es más que dos.
Tres es más de dos.
The first sentence in this paragraph (horrible run-on that it was) contained OVER 70 WORDS; whereas the second and third contained 6 and 9 words respectfully. I mention this because it was quite a challenge to determine when to insert the correct punctuation (i.e., period versus a comma) during this dictation. In short, this was by far the worse dictation to listen to and attempt to discern (by the speaker's intonation) when to insert ending punctuation! Please do better.
Hello,
I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:
Tú hueles a perfume fresco.
or
Las galletas huelen a chocolate.
So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".
So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?
Thank you!
I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination? Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward". One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta". Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"? My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point. Is this the difference? Thanks for clarifying.
Hi,
Sometimes a word ending with a consonant takes the diminutive suffix 'illo' and other times it takes 'cillo'. Is there a rule for this or do we have to remember which is which?
Best regards,
Colin
Hoy invito yo, así que escoged ________ os guste.
This sentence has subjunctive so am i right to say it means = choose whatever you like?
if it means = whatever you like, then why is cual or cuales wrong for this sentence?
thanks
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