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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,962 questions • 9,749 answers • 995,509 learners
In this example, the subject (in English) of the sentence (todas las chicas) precedes the verb in the first sentence, but follows the verb (todas) in the second sentence. Would it be acceptable to place the subject before the verb in the second sentence so that it reads: "No, no a todas les gusta."?
For "I will get my nails shaped" we were told to "use the construction for 'to have something done'" - so [following your guidelines for sentences of that type] I put: "me daré forma a las uñas", but this was incorrect. However, "*le* daré forma a las uñas" was among the options allowed?
Hello,
Just to note that in one of the examples above, the English translation is not correct:
Él no te habría querido tanto como yo.He would not have loved you as much as me.While some (many!) English-speakers may say this (incorrectly), the actual meaning of what they are saying is: "He would not have loved you as much as (he loved/s) me."
The correct translation of the Spanish sentence would be:
"He would not have loved you as much as I do/did."
Obviously Hacer does not mean to walk and we already know that the Camino is a walking event. Wouldn’t it be better to just go ahead and translate as “doing the Camino?” Perfectly acceptable English and a more accurate translation, it would seem.
The translation for final sentence in this exercise ("I would like to visit Medellín next year) was confusing for me.
I wrote: "Querría a visitar a Medellín el próximo año. But "the best answer" was "Quiero visitar Medellín ..."
I find this confusing because I understand "quiero" to translate to I want/would like -- not I would want/I would like.
Please help up clear this confusion.
Regards,
I. Pati Ecuamiga
Dear Kwiziq,
In virtually all of the dictations I have completed, I have found that it is quite difficult to discern when a sentence ends based on the speakers voice. This is to say, the speaker lowers his/her voice in a way that implies the end of a sentence, but when the answer is shown it becomes apparent to me that the lowering of the speaker's voice was actually meant to convey a pause. Is this the natural way hispanohablantes speak --- whether from Spain or Central/South America? Of course, as recommended, I do listen to the dictation before attempting to write it out, but I cannot memorize where sentences end vs. when there is a pause in the speaker's speech. Consequently, I'm constantly guessing at when the sentence ends. I am a native English speaker and typically, when translating spoken English to written form, lowering of the voice signifies a period --- not a pause (comma). As such, I often find it confusing (indeed, quite frustrating) to differentiate pauses from ends of sentences in the Kwiziq dictation exercises.
Pati Inez Ecuamiga
Hi,
For the sections "Eran aún mejores que..." and then after this "...en mis sueños.", I believe it might be a bit confusing to separate these parts of the same sentence as the use of the imperfect or preterite tense for the 'Ser' in this sentence relies on the context of to when this action refers. Just seeing the prompt "They were even better than...", I assumed that it was referring to the actual concert, which you would use the preterite of 'Ser' (Fueron) as it is a single and defined event, however when you see "...in my dreams." you then see it was referring to multiple, repeated instances so you would hence use the imperfect tense (Eran).
Perhaps I am mistaken?
Regardless, these quizzes are very good for practical and realistic Spanish usage.
Thanks,
Angus.
In the quiz question with the answers "We have to be patient with our teenage children.
We need to be patient with our teenage children."
As a native English speaker, I don't understand the distinction being made between these two options. They seem synonymous.
How do you do the upside down question mark?
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