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5,677 questions • 9,130 answers • 894,031 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,677 questions • 9,130 answers • 894,031 learners
Hi, why is preterite used here instead of the imperfect? The preterite implies that Ustedes no longer exist.
under the dictation, a part of the sentence says
Y nos invitaban a todos a una ceremonia y una fiesta, en una estación de esquí la Navidad próxima.
i understand that nos invitaban = they invited us
nos invitaban a una fiesta = they invited us to a party
but what does a todos means?
ayudame por favor
muchas gracias
"el pulque lo sirven en las pulquerias" why do we use "lo" in this sentence
I've used "le" for men AND women (e.g. "Un gusto conocerle!", "Pásenle" etc.), but the article says it's only for men. This is Spanish spoken in a Mexican-American household, so I don't know how that affects things-- could be improper Spanish, but I thought I'd check because I hear it often.
Su autora es Irene Orce
May I ask why do you need to use imperfect tense for this sentence: Después de hacer el check-in, he comprado algo de ropa en la boutique porque no traía nada conmigo.
I guess if we use prétérito perfect for the whole story it should be it as well.
I gave the answer Ustedes son they said it was incorect and should have been ustedes eres
I am confused- the present participle in English is used in both the despues de + infinitive and the gerundio. It’s hard to differentiate between the two in English so it’s guesswork in Spanish…
I've been learning Spanish slowly for many years now, from taking classes, learning online, and speaking with native speakers. My interactions in Spanish have been limited to Latin Americans, primarily due to the fact that I live somewhat close to the US/Mexico border. In my previous learning, I've been made aware of the word "vosotros" but not much beyond that. The conjugations I had previously been taught omitted the "vosotros" form. I have also never heard the word "vosotros" used in any conversations.
I'm curious how common it is as the lessons I am going through have the conjugations for that form, as well as examples. I'm not sure how much focus I should place on relearning conjugations for the vosotros form given my preference to learn Latin American Spanish.
Thank you in advance for your help!
Would it be correct to use the word “solo” like this:
No me queda mucho dinero; solo tengo para dos cervezas más.
It’s just that we might say it this way in English.
Also in general can the word “solo” be used with clauses of limitation?
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