Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
For the question:
¡________ me has traído! ¡Qué lugar más espectacular!
The English translation that is given is:
Where have you brought me! What an amazing place!
It seems that the English is a bit ambiguous because it is phrased as a question but there is an exclamation mark rather than a questions so I don't know whether the original question in Spanish is intended to be a statement or a question.
Hi,
Es esencial que haya un acuerdo entre ellos
1)It is essential that THERE IS an agreement between them. Using "there is" rather than "come". What do you think? Come implies in the future.
2)Why is "los pájaros irán HAYA donde comida" Why HAYA in the subjuntive
Please explain on what basis cuándo is correct here and not cuando. This looks to me like a perfectly straightforward statement of fact. No one is asking a question. In fact, this sentence is an answer to a question such as, "When will you see him again?"
In view of the explanation of "ir" vs. "irse" in this lesson, how would one contrast "irse" vs. "salir"
The hints giving in the mini quiz for this lesson are not very helpful. Correct me if I am wrong, but the verb that we need to conjugate is ir not the second verb in the infinitive. Therefore, the hint should read conjugate ir in el presente, correct?
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Yo habría ido a la entrevista si ________ un salario más decente.
I put "me hubieran ofrecido", but apparently that was wrong and "me" is not needed
Why?
Are these correct?
A ti te gusta la historia y la fisica.
A mi me gusta el tenis y el futbol.
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