Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why are there pronouns attached to the verbs in the first three examples but not in the remaining examples?   

The first and third examples are reflexive (which explains those), but what about the second one ("comerlos")?  Thanks.

¡Hola a todos!

Me ha gustado mucho esta lectura, pero quiero dejar un comentario.**

El autor escribe:

"Finalmente, quiero ver el amanecer sobre el Océano Pacífico, en Ciudad de Panamá, y el atardecer en el Océano Atlántico, en Colón."

Nunca he estado en Ciudad de Panamá. Dicho esto, ¿alguien ha visto salir el sol sobre el Océano Pacífico desde la costa oeste de Panamá? O, ¿ha visto ponerse el sol sobre el Atlántico en una playa de Colón?, en la costa este de Panamá?    ;>)

**Utilicé DeepL translator y SpanishChecker para ajustar mi composición. Los errores son míos.

Why does ‘a ti’ carry an accent in your examples ?  I understand “a mí’ does it to differentiate itself from ‘mi’ but there is no reason for ‘ti’ to carry an accent. 

This might be way off base, but while "I" (or "yo") is the most common personal pronoun in most all languages, when one combines "it", "he", "she" and "este" etc followed by nouns, the third person singular is the most commonly used conjugation. In Kwiziq quizzes and exercises, it seems that "yo" and "tu" are the ones that show up most often. The exercises would be better if they had a proportional focus on the pronouns/conjugations in line with how frequently they are used in real life.  

Hi,

I would have thought that as feliz is a transient feeling, estar would be apprpriate.  However, in the example above, ser has been used.

Can you please explain.

Thanks and regards,

Colin

II want to know the name of the wordthat goes with haber to form phrases dado estado etc

Hello. Why we use "consiguieron", not "consiguyeron"? Thanks. Zuzana

Are desde and de interchangeable. For ex, I saw him from a distance. Would both work?

Lo vi desde una distancia.