Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Hi, in this example:
Ojalá encuentren la medicina adecuada para tratar su enfermedad.I wish they found the right medicine to treat his illness.
Doesn't the Spanish say "I hope they find the right medicine to treat his illness."? That is, "ojalá encuentren" is in the present tense expressing a hope, not the past tense expressing a lament ("I wish they (implied: had) found.")
Me temo que Cristina no podrá ir hoy al trabajo ...
I think the cave that we were going to see pasada mañana is as far from the speaker as from the listeners, and it is far. Caves are usually somewhere outside of a city. So I used aquella and even after I read the lesson I i think that it was the correct answer.
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
se encuentra en el sur de España, cerca del Mediterranean Sea - I wrote this for the first sentence “it is located at the south of Spain, near to the Mediterranean Sea”. My questions are: is se encuentra accepted? And how do we know if we should write it as a name for Mediterranean Sea or as El mar Mediterráneo? And does qué exclamation sentences always in plural? Thanks
Why does sentence need A at the beginning? (The other examples don’t have it).
Thanks very much
Shirley
Ooooh, I love it when I see that my "topics covered" percentage line is headind downward, that means more lovely topics for me to be rubbish at.
Thank you Kwiziq team.
:-)
fue reina de Castilla, Aragón y Navarra.
Here's the hint we gave you:Castile = Castilla, Aragon = Aragón, Navarre = Navarra, don't put any article in front of "queen", use El Pretérito Imperfecto
Hola Inma,
Having read your reply to David I'm still a bit lost. Many of the phrases were translated in the past tense for example "We lit the fireplace" and "we sat in front of it" etc but all took the pretérito perfecto because they occurred today "Hoy". However, "We loved seeing how the firewood was consumed" was the only phrase given in the pretérito indefinido and expanded in the imperfecto.
There must be something about the phrase that calls for this construction. Can you give me a pointer?
Saludos. John
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