Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Shouldn't it be groupos indígenos with an "o"?
fue reina de Castilla, Aragón y Navarra.
Here's the hint we gave you:Castile = Castilla, Aragon = Aragón, Navarre = Navarra, don't put any article in front of "queen", use El Pretérito Imperfecto
Rafa, el muy egoísta ... : Rafa, [being] such an idiot ....
Shouldn't the translation be "Rafa, [being] such an egotist"...? Or perhaps ""Rafa, the egotistical jerk"
I answered 'tendremos una' , but the correct answer was, just, 'tendremos'. Why is 'una' not required?
Un bolígrafo también es una pluma. Si?
Dicha ejemplo, eso es, " Nos costo mucho" = It was difficult, la significa del verbo COSTARSE en este contexto = i find it hard to/ difficult to in the sense of speaking to someone...... Esta razon.
BARRY.
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
"Hacía varios días que alguien me acosaba" means:
Someone was stalking me for several days.
I was stalked for several days by someone.
Someone had stalked me for several days.
None of these answer carry the sense of being in the time frame of the past the way the examples do, such as "someone had been stalking me for several days". In English, I don't think the 2nd or 3rd answer are functionally any different. The first one is the only one to partly give a sense that this is an ongoing thing, even though it doesn't give the same frame of reference.
I suggest you change the available answers.
¡Anda, qué bien te han dejado en la peluquería!
Could this also be stated as? ...
¡Anda, qué bien te han hecho en la peluquería!
Or is that rude? I probably wouldn't have thought to use dejado.
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