Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Hola,
RE: what this means: [the] when used
It talked about the use of [the] colours
I was wondering what is the meaning of the use of brackets [ ] and ( ) in these tests.
Sometimes it seems that this means that the word in brackets is used in Spanish, but if I remember correctly,
sometimes it does not mean this.
So if there is a way to find out what these means and any others, would be very appreciated.
Thank you.
Also wishing you the best in this New Year to you and your team!
Nicole
Hola Inma,
Having read your reply to David I'm still a bit lost. Many of the phrases were translated in the past tense for example "We lit the fireplace" and "we sat in front of it" etc but all took the pretérito perfecto because they occurred today "Hoy". However, "We loved seeing how the firewood was consumed" was the only phrase given in the pretérito indefinido and expanded in the imperfecto.
There must be something about the phrase that calls for this construction. Can you give me a pointer?
Saludos. John
"Hacía varios días que alguien me acosaba" means:
Someone was stalking me for several days.
I was stalked for several days by someone.
Someone had stalked me for several days.
None of these answer carry the sense of being in the time frame of the past the way the examples do, such as "someone had been stalking me for several days". In English, I don't think the 2nd or 3rd answer are functionally any different. The first one is the only one to partly give a sense that this is an ongoing thing, even though it doesn't give the same frame of reference.
I suggest you change the available answers.
Clearly spoken and a nice addition to vocabulary but what is the significance of the two girls from Guadalupe? Is Guadalupe Victoria DUR the home town of Daniela?
Why can't we use 'ricas' in place of 'deliciosas'?
I read elsewhere that when quedar is used to express the idea of ending up in an emotional or physical state, it does not require reflexive pronoun. Is this accurate ? So if I have a scenario of 2 persons fighting and the one of them left a mark on the second and it left him standing still from the shock. Do we use ‘se queda inmóvil’ or ‘queda inmóvil’ ?
Why is the first al used? I thought al meant “to the” or “at the”. It doesn’t make sense to say, Ana loves to the man.
Thank you in advance for your help,
Kim
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
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