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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,862 questions • 9,593 answers • 960,002 learners
In this construction, can the "se" also go at the end of the infinitive, like this:
No debe fumarse.
?
Thanks!
Hola,
As a matter of interest, what would the difference in meaning be if 'por' were substituted for 'para'.
The online translator I use says that they are the same.
Gracias.
Colin
The listening practice with the transcript is excellent. At this level, these are the types of exercises that help the most
Thank you
Será mejor que tú ________ tu carrera universitaria pronto.You'd better start your university studies soon.(HINT: Conjugate "comenzar" in El Presente de Subjuntivo)I would translate as it will be better that you start your university studies soon but you have translated with would be - (is this a mistake on the question given in the test?)
if it was conditional ie sería mejor que ......then I would translate -it would be better that you start .....
Please can you clarify this for me thank you juliecomiences
One of the quiz questions was
The citizens choose a new president for the country.
Los cuidadanos _____ nuevo presidente para el pais.
The hint was conjugate elegir in el presente.
To make the sentence complete I typed "eligen un" for the blank, but my answer was wrong. It said the answer was "eligen". Some of the quiz questions require you to type 2 words (or more). How was I supposed to know that this specific question only wanted 1 word, which doesn't seem complete?
In this topic I can't find reference to animals. I remember from other lessons that animals normally aren't considered valid when, for instance, using alguien. On the test it's asked about hearing a cat enter the house. Makes me think that hasn't been (explicitly) covered here...
The answer says: Pasó dos días sumergido en plena naturaleza sin que nadie lo molestara enviándole mensajes o llamándolo.
Can you also say: Pasó dos días sumergido plena naturaleza sin que nadie le molestara enviándole mensajes o llamándole.
Is this Spain vs Latin America grammar? Also, in general, I thought molestar was an inverted verb like gustar and required "le."
Do I understand correctly that both tenses are possible? If so, is there a difference in meaning or are they interchangeable?
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