Spanish language Q&A Forum

Should I add "estar + gerund" to list of verbs that act like Gustar? 

I don't understand.

It seems like one of the quiz questions and the examples you give for past participles use the pretérito perfecto for what should be the pretérito indefinido as translated from English. Examples: we wouldn’t say I’ve written to my girlfriend if we wanted to say I wrote to my girlfriend or I’ve returned from work for I returned from work. Please explain why the perfecto is used in the statements and not the indefinido. 

Can "esto" be used as a demonstrative pronoun?  For example, esto libro?

Not a question, but I think a much better way to put this would be ú -> ue, meaning the "u" becomes "ue" when stressed. That holds across all tenses (also for voseo) and needs no special cases at all (assuming the usual ge -> gue to keep the g sound from getting mangled). Turns it into a single simple fact to remember.

In the example below, why is it 'aprovechó' and not 'se aprovechó de'? It seems quite a negative context to me, and the context even seems to be leading us towards using the reflexive form by saying 'el muy egoísta'. 

Rafa, [being] such an idiot, took advantage of the moment to break up with me. : Rafa, el muy egoísta, ___ la ocasión para romper conmigo.

This one to me does not mean 'to want someone to', but 'to want something done'. So I think, 'Todos queremos el problema se resuelva pronto' is enough.

In the last section of the translation, "between the practical, incredulity and mysticism" is translated as "entre lo práctico, la incredulidad y el misticismo."  I don't understand why the práctico gets lo as it's article (other than because the hint said so).  Can you explain, please.  Thanks