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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,156 learners
I found this confusing.
"Hemos pedido" translates into English as "asked," which is a past tense. So I wanted to use pusiera. But the answer requires present subjunctive (ponga).
Is it always true that when the main verb is in the present perfect, the subsequent clause will use the present subjunctive? So in Spanish we should treat present perfect as a present tense, whereas in English it is a past tense?
Arreglándose para la fiesta, alguien llamó a la puerta.
While getting ready for the party, someone knocked on the door.
In English I believe this is incorrect. The gerund refers to the subject in the other sentence, so this sounds as if whoever knocked on the door was also getting ready for the party.
In Spanish if it is correct - how do we know it refers to ella? Based on context?
The test question and answer does not seem to make sense for this lesson about the al contraction. The question was: Tenemos que ir ________ estación de Atocha en Madrid. We need to go to Atocha station in Madrid.
First, "We need" is necisitamos. Tenemos que is "We have to"
Second, this is a question about the al and del contractions, but the answer to this question is "a la" so I do not understand the test question.
According to my research, double checking, regular would be «Yo envio.» But there needs to be an accent over the i > «Yo envío.» And other conjugations have the accented "I". And so it is not a regular "-ar" verb.
en el texto..
.. Si nunca visitaste México, hacelo en estas fechas. Creo que la vas a pasar muy bien...
questions
1. hacelo .. here does ´lo´ refer to ´viaje´ or something else ?
2. Shouldn´t it be ´hazlo´ instead of ´hacelo´
3. .. la vas a pasar.. what is ´la´ referring to? Don´t we usually say ´lo pasar bien´?
gracias como siempre
Do I need to use sino que when any conjugated verb follows, or only when the conjugated verb is different from the conjugated verb in the first clause? If the verbs are the same (vas a +infinitive) which is correct?
As an extremely well-educated native North American speaker trying to learn Latin American Spanish, I find the semantics in this lesson frustrating. This is punctuated by all the comments seen here. There is insufficient context provided. For example (ignoring the hint since hints aren't given in real life), one of the quiz questions asks to translate: "They are having ice cream." I would immediately think "Están tomando helado." - or perhaps "desfrutando" given some of the loose lesson translations. However, to think: "Van a tomar helado." I need further context. For example: "They are having ice cream this afternoon." - "Van a tomar helado esta tarde." Otherwise in English you are much less ambivalent saying: "They are going to have ice cream." I understand both sides of the arguments and I fall more on the side of "They are going to have," but a better solution is to provide a more complete explanation and context in the lesson, after all, it is more common to say "They are going to have." Concede that we use the exact same literal expression in both Spanish and English but then take it further in the lesson to explain the nuanced differences in English thought compared to Spanish thought.
Thanks.
Shouldn't the first answer be Estoy deseando, not Tengo qanas de?
No ________ todo el tiempo a nuestro hijo; necesita espacio.
We can't be watching our son all the time; he needs some space.
(HINT: use modal verb "poder" and the verb "vigilar" for to watch)
podemos estar vigilando
podemos estar vigilandolo
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