Spanish language Q&A Forum

We can't use the gerund as an adjective...so why is there "casas colgando"? Isn't it the gerund here?

There is a hole in your explanation.

You say: 

"In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence...."

but you do not explain what happens if "a + pronoun" is at the end of the sentence.

Is the indirect object pronoun required or optional in that case?

eg: Can "Me lo ha comprado a mí." be written as "lo ha comprado a mí."?

Regards,

Fred.

"Su familia la quiere mucho y, para ser sinceros, ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos." quote from cloze exercise

I do not understand to whom 'para ser sinceros' refers to.  Does it refer to 'su familia' or Eva, the daughter who made the sacrifices? 

Why is 'sinceros' plural since it refers to a singular noun, either su familia or Eva?

This sentence doesn't make much sense to me.

I understand the need for para in para ser sinceros to mean in order to be sincere, but I am confused as to why sinceros is plural and to whom it refers.

Thank you.

 Using para (and not por) for purpose, goal or objective

I'm confused why the answer for #10 is cierto when the translation is "some/a bit" and not "certain." 

Part of a sentence in the above exercise says "Donde se encerraba a los enemigos del castillo" Should encerraba not be plural i.e. encerraban? Is it singular because " a los enemigos" is indirect? I'm confused. Why not fueron encerrados?

Why is Nos volvemos incorrect? Also, Would Nosotros volvemos be incorrect?  The answer was simply Volvemos.