When movement is involved - adónde / adonde ? In Question 5 of the Test I have just completed, we had to translate: "She came near to where I was sitting" by inserting the correct word in the gap here: "Ella se acercó ________ yo estaba sentada". It did look to me as if movement was involved, so I chose "... adónde …" [plus the others which carried the accent] … But I was wrong !
Admittedly, when I clicked on "Explain this", I noticed this example:
Iremos adonde tú quieras, cariño >> We will go where (to whichever restaurant) you want, darling...
... which also involves movement, but despite that it uses 'donde' - with no accent !
[This topic has been answered above -
Thank You Inma ! ]
Here we learn 'estar por llover'
It's only a couple of weeks since I learned 'estar para llover' and I can't tell the difference.
"if you want a sweetie, eat your soup". lol, to me, sweetie is sweetheart, or some other affectionate term. Sweet = caramelo.
In Question 5 of the Test I have just completed, we had to translate: "She came near to where I was sitting" by inserting the correct word in the gap here: "Ella se acercó ________ yo estaba sentada". It did look to me as if movement was involved, so I chose "... adónde …" [plus the others which carried the accent] … But I was wrong !
Admittedly, when I clicked on "Explain this", I noticed this example:
Iremos adonde tú quieras, cariño >> We will go where (to whichever restaurant) you want, darling...
... which also involves movement, but despite that it uses 'donde' - with no accent !
[This topic has been answered above -
Thank You Inma ! ]
I still don't get the difference. Always pick the incorrect answer in quiz.
Carlos no es mi primer marido.
.Why not primero?
In the example below, why is it 'aprovechó' and not 'se aprovechó de'? It seems quite a negative context to me, and the context even seems to be leading us towards using the reflexive form by saying 'el muy egoísta'.
Rafa, [being] such an idiot, took advantage of the moment to break up with me. : Rafa, el muy egoísta, ___ la ocasión para romper conmigo.
Although the note on the question suggests the imperfect of Poder I think the translation should use the conditional, Podría rather than podía
It seems like one of the quiz questions and the examples you give for past participles use the pretérito perfecto for what should be the pretérito indefinido as translated from English. Examples: we wouldn’t say I’ve written to my girlfriend if we wanted to say I wrote to my girlfriend or I’ve returned from work for I returned from work. Please explain why the perfecto is used in the statements and not the indefinido.
Why is my answer wrong, I have used desde but the tense is marked wrong
I've = I have
so why not present perfect?
Hola!
Quiero saber si los personas mexicano dicen "j" para "ll" y "y" o es un "y" sonido? Vivo en California y quiero sonar mas natural para mi comunidad. Gracias por todo!
(Sorry if my Spanish is broken, I just restarted learning)
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level