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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,946 questions • 9,716 answers • 988,709 learners
I was taught podrías means could when talking about the future and podía means could when talking about the past. Is this wrong?
Hi...
My name is Zotya and I wonder how I can expect it to be pronounced by Spanish people when I arrive there in October.
I am specifically interested because if the first letter "Z".
Thank you all.
How would you write “My leg and knee hurt”? It seems like I could write it “Me duele la pierna y la rodilla”, but not “Me duelen la pierna y la rodilla." Are either of those correct?
HELP: Translation of "He goes to his friend's house"
1 Va a la casa de su amigo
2 Va a casa de su amigo
Is the definite article "la" casa necessary or does it make no difference?
Are both correct with no subtle difference in meaning?
I have searched the internet and KWIZIQ and can find no answer.
Many thanks,
Ian
Ian
Hola,
¿Qué es la diferencia de significado entre "Alguien no tiene que hacer algo" y "Alguien no tiene por qué hacer algo"? Y ¿por qué no se use "por que", sino "por qué" con el acento?
Gracias! (I hope that all made sense!)
Why can that not translate as "I like to dance" or must the "literal" option of "dancing is liked by me" then become "I like dancing".
The lesson says: "We use the construction no + verbo + ningún (a, os, as) to say any." When do you use ningún vs nada for "not any"?
I'm having difficulty distinguishing how to phrase the following two sentences in Spanish:
My old friend is visiting me today. (meaning he and I have been friends for a very long time.)
My old friend is visiting me today. (meaning my friend is very old in years.)
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