Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

How does the meaning change when es que is preceded by si?    For example:

Si es que no podía ni hablar.

HELP:  Translation of "He goes to his friend's house" 

1 Va a la casa de su amigo

2 Va a casa de su amigo

Is the definite article "la" casa necessary or does it make no difference?

Are both correct with no subtle difference in meaning?

I have searched the internet and KWIZIQ and can find no answer.

Many thanks,

Ian

Ian

It appears to me that the better answer for "we have been" would be "hemos estado" rather than "hemos ido," which seems to me to say "we have gone."  In English, there is a difference between "been" and "gone."  Could you please advise.  Thank you.

Hi,

In the sentence above, the translation of "... comer sano." is given as '... eat healthily'.  Doesn't 'sano' mean 'healthy' and 'sanamente' mean healthily?

I'm sorry to be so pedantic, but I like to get things right at the start.

Best regards,

Colin

I have understood that in Spain, the -se conjugation was used more in writing and formal situations, and -ra was more conversational. Is that not correct?