Spanish language Q&A Forum

The context seems like “i had written” which would be “había escrito” (?).

Muchas gracias

Shirley

I'm sure we all value the great work Inma, Silvia and the rest of the team do in answering all the questions we put to them on the Q&A Forum. I do. For me, this adds a lot to what makes Kwiziq such a valuable learning resource. 

So, I think it would be a great idea to be able to add these replies to a seperate notebook. This would not only allow for revision, but also give me some reference to go every time I think, "Hmmm, I'm sure someone gave me a really useful answer on this already!"

Could you explain the distinctions between:

"Cristina sería una buena madre." "Cristina será una buena madre." "Cristina va a ser una buena madre." 

I understand the difference between the first and the last, but I don't understand how the second version is distinct from those two. 

It would greatly enhance your course and the use thereof if you included  the same “Play All” feature for all the examples given at the end of each of your approximately 600 lessons.  

Hi,

I was wondering why the "present" tense is used in Spanish for "llamar" which is then translated in the future tense.  Why not llamaremos?

Después de la fiesta llamamos a un taxi.
After the party we will call a taxi.

Thank you. 

The examples given seem to be in the preterite, not the subjunctive. Should the title be changed, or the examples? Or am I mixed up?