Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,013 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,280 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,013 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,280 learners
If one translates: "I learned everything"
It is written: "J'ai tout appris."
But if I translate: "I learned everything I needed to know"
It is written: "J'ai appris tout ce que j'avais besoin de savoir."
Why does "tout" move out from between the verb to behind it? Is it because of the subordinate phrase?
I thought Ojalá had the accent on the last A.
I don't understand the example sentence " Ninguna chica viajará contigo a ninguna parte". The tip says that you can only use the words "ningun" or "Ninguna" at the beginning of a sentence, so this example sentence does not make sense to me since " Ninguna" Is found towards the end of the sentence too. Thank you.
2nd paragraph: Is there a lesson that discusses "que" used to mean "to be?"
I searched on "que" and got 1620 hits, so I scanned the first 60 and did not see "que" and "to be" in any lesson title.
I have taken this test several times. Each time I check Comprad tanto carne como pescado, it marks me as choosing tanta.
Would the present subjunctive ever be permissible in these constructions or only the imperfect subjunctive?
I understand when the pronoun replace a thing use Los or Las, lo or la but the quiz is using Los to replace a miguel y a Jose. is the hing that an artricle is in front of the names
Are there structural clues we can look for to determine whether "que" is meant to express a wish vs. disbelief or would it be contextual? I ask since sometimes the disbelief version can be followed by the subjunctive.
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