Spanish language Q&A Forum

These seem to be my achilleas heal.

I have taken this test several times. Each time I check   Comprad tanto carne como pescado,  it marks me as choosing tanta.  

1. Ese dibujo parece bueno. Enséñamelo, por favor.

2. Ese dibujo parece bueno. Me lo enseñas, por favor.

What is the difference between these two options?  Why is the second one incorrect? To me they both sound acceptable.  Thanks  

Good topic.  I hear these constructions a lot from my Mexican friends.  Even in dance class the instructor used to say "¿Sale?" after teaching a new step.

I find that in general they use inverted constructions a lot in Mexico.

How would we put these constructions into question form?  For example, could we ask "¿Cómo te sale?" to ask how something turned out?

Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].

My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?

Hello,

In the following sentence I expected está, as "but it is very cold".  Have I got this wrong?

"El agua es clara, pero esta muy fría."

Thanks

Hi there, I find the adjective position of "la nueva red 5G" very interesting here.  I can see how it could also be "la red 5G nueva".
I'm a telecoms engineer (ex Telefonica) and technically the 5G network is "brand new" and "newly created" and it is not intended to replace the other networks of 2G, 3G, 4G etc at the time if it's creation.  I'd say that both adjective placements could be argued for in this exercise.

1. In your "hint", you told us to "... use a pronominal verb for 'take advantage' " -

- but despite that^, in order to get a correct answer we were supposed to write: "Aprovecha la ruptura para conocerte más a ti misma" - [i.e., with 'aprovecha', a non-pronominal verb?]

("Aprovecha la ruptura ..." is of course quite consistent with the guidelines given in your lesson at Spanish verb Aprovechar vs Aprovecharse (pronominal verbs) [number 7478] ... so it is only your 'hint' which needs to be modified, not your text).

-.-.-.-.-

2. In your sentence: "... ya que ambos estábais sumergidos en una relación tóxica", there should not be a tilde in 'estabais'?

Re: Exercise: Spanish dictation exercise

SOPHIA OF GREECE AND DENMARK (A1)

Line: Doña Sofía habla 5 idiomas;

1) This is not pertaining specifically to this section, but it brought up something that I have been noticing: that the “s” has a tendency to be dropped, whether in real life, or songs, etc

      I am French from Quebec, and in French, the “s’s” are silent for the most part. I have a feeling Spanish is moving towards that, whether acceptable grammaticaly, or not; by the powers that be J

My question is, what are the “rules” or guidelines for when to make the “s” silent (or skipped).

2) Also, is there a rule where numbers would be written in numerals or in script?

I wrote “cinco” but it was corrected to “5”

3) Also, Kwizbot added a semi-colon at the end of this section, other times I put in a comma, and it strikes it, other times I don’t and there’s a comma.  Notwithstanding that, it’s a bit difficult to know from the audio.  (I’m not faulting that, just a note, but I appreciate the fact that it’s noted, as that is a good way to learnJ)

I did a search on your site for lessons in “punctuation” but didn’t find any.  Could you direct me to any?

Sorry about all these questions, these quizzes really get me thinking, and I think that’s a good thing. J

Thank you for being there and your patience with us learnersJ

Nicole

"Mis padres se animaron con la visita de mis sobrinos." I don't understand why this is animarse. They aren't cheering themselves up, they're being cheered up by the visit of mis sobrinos.