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6,017 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,188 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,188 learners
In this question (I waited for them), it appears to me that "them" is an indirect object pronoun. Below, Gruff, a Kwiziq team member says this. However, this question is answered by using a direct object pronoun. I got it wrong when I used the indirect pronoun. Which is it? I would appreciate having this clarified as I keep getting this question and I don't know how to answer it. Thanks,
Hola Inma,
I'm struggling with this construction. I have been googling and found that saber and agradecido/a are commonly put together presumably meaning "to be grateful (for)" perhaps.
Therefore I'm stuck on the use of sé, as this is the first person "I know" and that doesn't translate because the article is about giving advice / using the imperative, but the speaker definitely says "se or sé." I thought that agradecerse was the verb leading me to write down "se agradecido" but I don't think you can use the pronominal in this way. So that may be another dead end!
Can you help me make sense of this please?
Saludos. John
In the writing challenge we are asked to translate: "The Spanish guitar has 6 strings and consists of a wooden box, a neck and a fretboard". Kwiziq's answer is given as "La guitarra española tiene 6 cuerdas y está formada por una caja de madera, un mástil y un diapasón" and "está hecha de una caja..." is given as an alternative answer.
I used consistir en instead of estar formada por or está hecha de. However, if the sentence had been "The Spanish guitar is made of..." I'm pretty sure I would have gone with está hecha de.
So, is my answer wrong? Or, could my answer be considered a third alternative? And could you explain the differences between the two forms, consistir en and estar formado por/estar hecha de, and in what contexts I might use one in preference to another.
Saludos
I thought Ojalá had the accent on the last A.
For the question: Tengo dos compañeras simpáticas y salgo ________ cada viernes. I have two nice colleagues and I go out with them every Friday. (HINT: female colleagues)
Why isn't the answer "vosotras"? Wouldn't these colleagues be familiar enough? They go out for lunch every Friday!
Why wouldn't it be "no los respeta a sus hijos"?
Looks like English translation in the second example is wrong.h
Should the 2nd example above not have read ' you may well have been ill' without the 'as' which would be said in different circumstances e,g, you may as well have been ill for all the good you did ??
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