Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,056 questions • 9,905 answers • 1,027,495 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,056 questions • 9,905 answers • 1,027,495 learners
I thought that Habrian is in the future, but I have seen it used many times as not in the future. Are these two interchangeable?
Where does “eso” fit in, and could it be used in the example below? If so, how would they be different?
I think I always use “eso” in these cases; never esto. Wondering if I’ve always been wrong.
“ Esto no es lo que yo dije.
This is not what I said.”You say that Felipe was succeeded as king of Spain by his son Carlos. That is incorrect. Carlos was mentally unstable and conspired against his father by supporting the protestants in the Netherlands. He was imprisoned in 1568 and died the following year. Felipe was succeeded by his second son Felipe 111
Hi! This is my first time asking a question on here so I don't know how quickly I'll get a reply. I take Spanish as a class, but I failed my second semester. My school did some weird things and now a year later I'm retaking it... without any knowledge from the first semester which is why I'm on here.
My teacher and our textbook (VHS Senderos Supersite) say that gemelo/a translates to twin. Is this a dialect difference? Or is it just a translation error?
Is it de la mañana, en la mañana or por la mañana? Are they interchangeable? It's always a guess for me.
Can we use parar synonymously as dejar or are these terms used in different contexts?
I have seen llevarse and tomarse used more frequently than tardarse and demorarse. Is this the more common colloquial way of saying "to take time", or is this perhaps a regional difference? For example --
Me llevó un poco más de tiempo que de costumbre dormirme.
Me tomé un tiempo para pensarlo.
Le llevó mucho tiempo para elegir un sombrero.
Nos llevó media hora montar la tienda.
This is taken from a rather unpleasant context. But I still want to know what the grammar behind it is. Why does this have se at the end? Would ¡Exprópie! work the same way?
As always, thank you!
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level