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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,013 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,074 learners
Why does the accent change from comprárselos to cómpreselos depending on the conjugation? Does the stressed syllable always change in the imperative form?
I encountered the following question during an exercise at A1 level:
"Yo ______ mis manos en el agua. (I plunge my hands in the water.)"
It is my understanding that mi/mis should not be used with body parts or clothing. Could you please advise?
Thanks
This is taken from a rather unpleasant context. But I still want to know what the grammar behind it is. Why does this have se at the end? Would ¡Exprópie! work the same way?
As always, thank you!
Are there 2 adverbs cuándo and cuando? WordReference.com has both listed. I need an explanation on this for A1 beginner (me).
I thought that Habrian is in the future, but I have seen it used many times as not in the future. Are these two interchangeable?
I thought the answer were plural, muchas for feminine. However, the answer is mucho. May I know what is the reason.
I have seen llevarse and tomarse used more frequently than tardarse and demorarse. Is this the more common colloquial way of saying "to take time", or is this perhaps a regional difference? For example --
Me llevó un poco más de tiempo que de costumbre dormirme.
Me tomé un tiempo para pensarlo.
Le llevó mucho tiempo para elegir un sombrero.
Nos llevó media hora montar la tienda.
I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!
Just curious! Is there a difference in use in terms of formal/informal register with these two constructions, or is “tan...como” just more common? Thanks!
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