Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have read the answer given to Ralph.  At the very least this is a VERY bad example to give in a lesson.  The answer demonstrates that either tense could be used depending on the message the writer wishes to convey. 

Why 'comí' una lubina, then 'tomé' un trozo, but with the same english translation?

Hola, no entiendo estas frases: 

1) justo de lo que se trata, 

2) es de ver que todos somos distintos

Entiendo la idea de la paradoja--que la igualdad es importante pero, al mismo tiempo, somos individuales--pero no puedo traducir las frases. 

Una suposición:

1) in fairness to what we are dealing with

2) one must see that

llevar and tomar mean ¨take¨, are they the same?

[A comment, not a question]: "Guión" is interesting because the Academia in Madrid recently ruled that it had to be spelled "guion". They added that they were not prescribing how it was supposed to be pronounced. A lot of people (in Spain; I'm not sure about América?) still pronounce it with two syllables, as if the 'o' carried an accent: 'ó'. It does become a bit problematic when you expand it to "guionista" - where there is no obvious indicator telling you to make it four syllables (i.e., separating the 'ui' from the 'o') > gui_on'ista.

¿Dónde_____una floristería, por favor?

I answered "está" but it's saying it's "hay" even though the examples shown in the lesson show

¿Dónde está el parque?

Why was I incorrect?