Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola

In relation to "después de que", I have questions:

(1) why "hallase" (instead of "se halla") is used in this sentence:

"...es el final de un camino [...] después de que la Guardia Civil hallase en la 'tablet' de la víctima un enigmático mensaje."

(2) what construction is this? what are the grammar rules?

Muchas gracias.

I have a question about constructions like this: "Omar y Cristina son nuestros panaderos," e.g. "Omar and Cristina are our bakers." I understand it is "nuestros" because it is the nosotros form of the possessive adjective. However, I'm confused about the gender. Why is it masculine here?

here it says ¨Nosotros no deberíamos haberlo escuchado.¨ Should it be  Nosotros no deberíamos haberle escuchado? Le instead of Lo?

In this question from a quiz:

"El presidente ________ Gobierno tiene su residencia oficial en el Palacio de la Moncloa, en Madrid"

I was told that it should be del. However, in the lesson it says not to use contractions prior to proper nouns. Is this not a proper noun, despite the fact it is capitalized?

Is there any problem with adding "se" to the verb "reír" here? 

Why do we say "ciento por ciento"? Ciento is more than one hundred so shouldn't it only be cien por ciento and cien por cien?

I see oenegés as the original transcript - but wouldn't it be O.N.G. like the acronym in English?

"quien había fallecido"

Just wondering, why is it que in the first example and quien in the second?

why is tenido sometimes with an accent on the nand sometimes without. The correct answer for this question was with an accent wheras another question using tenido was without. My collins dictionary says without.