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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,496 learners
You have placed the 'tilde' incorrectly in the sentence "En el café se discutía de toros, politíca, teatro y literatura" > It should be written: "... política …" - [in "Tertulias en el Café Gijón" , B2]
It seems to me that when conditional is used que takes on a similar function as si.
Could we replace que with si?
E.g.
No estaría bien que tuvieses tanto tiempo libre.
No estaría bien si tengas/tuvieras tanto tiempo libre.
I don't understand why the imperfect "Teníamos que llevar" is used and not the preterite. After studying again when to use imperfect, it would seem that this sentence is " We used to have to wear" or "We were having to wear", whereas "We had to wear" would be "Tuvimos que llevar". I can't see how the phrase "We had to wear protective hats" suggests it is ongoing and not completed. Obviously I'm wrong but I don't get it.
Good day,
I would like to know why you also need to use the subject in the sentence when you already conjugate the verb in the proper form? I.e. Nosotros volvemos muy cansados instead of volvemos muy cansados? Thanks a lot and best regards,
Marvin
Vas a/para casa de Inés
Wouldn't there be "la" before casa?Then if "a" or "para" is correct why don't we get "no banana" if we used "para"? In this case using "a" instead of "para" is more correct?
Do salud and sanidad both mean health. How do you choose which one to use?
Can anyone explain why the following answer options are all punctuated with a semicolon? Is this the correct use of a semicolon in Spanish? In English, it would be a comma instead of a semicolon.
Why was "por lo tanto" marked wrong in this test? It is perfectly correct, isn't it?
"A new Reference Grammar ..." by Butt and Benjamin discusses Spanish verbs which can be followed by an infinitive instead of the subjunctive - even when the subjects are different in the two halves of the sentence, e.g. persuadir, ayudar, enseñar, [+ preposition 'a']. The authors suggest that "pedir" may be starting to move in that direction (mainly in Latin America, where rules are perhaps more relaxed than in Spain, particularly in conversations?) In addition, the infinitive construction with 'pedir' seems to be creeping into casual journalistic style, especially in headlines.
I don't get it
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