Cualquier v. Cualquiera v. Cualesquiera I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.
The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."
Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.
Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una).
Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:
"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.
Hola Inma,
I can't really understand the diference (if there is one) between fuera - afuera and dentro - adentro. ¿Me podrías explicar?
¡Feliz año nuevo!
Ελισάβετ
The use of “te cansas” looks like reflexive use to me. However, when I consult the dictionary the use is described as pronominal use. Please help me with the difference between pronominal and reflexive use.
Regarding complex grammatical explanations: flowcharts and decision trees would be incredibly helpful adjuncts to the explanations given. The human brain responds more easily to visual representations of complex logic than it does to textual explanations. That is why they are so prominently used in science and mathematics. Just sayin'
James
I am trying to get my head around your example of probability needing the future tense:
Estoy muy ocupada así que llegaré sobre las doce o doce y media.
I am very busy so I might arrive at about twelve or twelve thirty….My question is on this basis how on earth anyone would know if I would arrive then or not, as surely if I use the future tense I’m saying I WILL arrive, not MIGHT ???This isn't a question, rather a big "thank you" for the explanation of how to work out if a word is of Greek origin. Idioma and Sistema always have me struggling to remember whether they're masculine or feminine. This tip will change everything! Thanks!
I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.
The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."
Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.
Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una).
Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:
"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.
I thought general experiences were talked about in the Imperfect. The time markers given in this lesson match up with https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/theme/746448.
And also this lesson seems to indicate using the Imperfect:
Using the imperfect tense in Spanish to express habits or repeated actions in the past (El Pretérito Imperfecto)
Hi there, some of these B2 lessons are very very big. I wondered if splitting them into two or more parts would help us students more? This lesson is long, but even so, at the end, there are many other examples that are just summarised.
Thanks
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