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5,705 questions • 9,184 answers • 903,187 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,705 questions • 9,184 answers • 903,187 learners
Mi abuela espera que ________ con ella este domingo. My grandmother hopes that I'll have lunch with her this Sunday.The answer is coma. But “have lunch” is almuerce.
In the phrase
"If... , they'd have given you a decent room." I understand why hubieran dado is correct, but isn't hubiesen dado also an acceptable form of the pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?In what area of the Spanish speaking world is "genial" pronounces "hen yen"?
I wrote 'el fin de la semana pasada' and it was corrected to 'el fin de semana pasado'. I can see why the definite article was dispensed with, but 'semana pasado'? Surely the adjectival form of 'pasado/a' is used, rather than the past participle?
I am having some difficulties with this sentence: Los empleados de la tienda se quedaron perplejos.
Why is quedarse used here and not quedar? I went back to the lesson that deals with the differences and therein both are used with an adjective or participle to express the result of an action (=quedar) or change (=quedarse). For quedar + adjective, it is also written that the meaning is rather "to end up", and I feel like it fits well in the sentence above: they ended up perplexed due to what Beru did.
Could both be correct in this context?
Thanks!
I think it would also be helpful to have examples with the conjugates that still have 'z', so that we know how it sounds and how to pronounce it correctly.
Should I take it from "me está siendo infiel" that he is being unfaithful to me personally i.e. the sentence is as would be spoken by his girlfriend and not by some other acquaintance who observes him to be unfaithful to her?
Ya que is said many times throughout and mostly seems to mean because. I have never seen this before, are there other things that ya que can mean?
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