Spanish language Q&A Forum

As other users have commented, "había" seems to be the past-tense equivalent of "hay".

"Había" is the past imperfect conjugation of haber, but the present tense conjugations of haber (he has ha hemos han) do not include "hay".

Is the word "hay" some other conjugation of "haber", or is not actually from the same root word?

Does anyone here run a conversation group to practice lives zoom etc.? I'm not looking to join tandem or meetup.

But correct answer is "...and can be unstable" (the weather') y puede 

SER variable / cambiante / inestable.  (I put puede estar variable)

The answer is sin saber los adultos. I’m not sure why the answer is not subjunctive as there are two different subjects, the one who stayed hiding and then the parents

I thought LLaves was keys I'm not sure what the spanish is for quays, is it cayos?

it says to use the EN sentance order - what is that? Where can I find the answer?

This lesson tells when it uses the accento - but DOESN"T tell what it means/how to use with out the accento so can't see alternative

"It's important to note that the slightly more formal relatives "el cual, la cual, los cuales, las cuales" can also be used with prepositions exactly the same way as we showed above."

 In the second question for this exercise "con cual" is indicated as being correct, but the body of the exercise suggests that when speaking of people, la or el cannot be omitted.

Any thoughts?

A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":

Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago. 

And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.

However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?

It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:

"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs". 

I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating? 

xx