Spanish language Q&A Forum

In this exercise, the adjective "gran" has been placed BEFORE the noun "siesta". To me, that suggests that the nap was "great", "wonderful", "marvelous", etc. as opposed to big, (i.e., long) in which case, I think that the adjective "grande" would be used and placed BEHIND the noun "siesta". However, in the English translation, I think I remember the word "big" being used (I'm not absolutely positive about this). Would you care to comment on this issue?

Hello,

It says verbal structure. Does this mean that this is only used in spoken Spanish?

Also, I thought that we used the present perfect for actions that have just happened?

Though most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.

In the example sentence. "Nos felicitaron porque habíamos aprobado todo con una nota alta," why is haber in the imperfect? I think of passing or failing something as something that happens in a moment -- you receive your grade and either it is pass or fail -- not as an ongoing state of being. Could one say "hubimos aprobado" or would that be wrong? 

Hi,

Does the section headed "Bear in mind that their regular superlative forms can also be used" mean that there are two ways to say "The youngest of my brothers is called Juan:

    El menor de mis hermanos se llama Juan.

and

   El más menor de mis hermanos se llama Juan.

Thanks

Could we hide parenthesized hints when it is time to test without them? I am reaching the level where learning is becoming ingrained such that I feel that I know the answers without being told, for example,. "refers to a past action that has been completed".

 I noticed that " me pregunto cuándo van a llegar" was one of the options in this exercise.  Could I have used "van a llegar' instead of "llegaràn" to express probability

The lesson is clear that "bueno" in front of a noun means "great," but simply "good" if after the noun.  So the instruction is that this girl simply wants a good man.  But the "correct" choice is "un buen hombre"!

Hola))

What is a Spanish equivalent for needn't have (done)? 

Why is "Te los voy a comprar."  only nearly correct?  Isn't this structure as correct as "Voy a comprartelos."?