A question about indirect object pronouns and IO or reflexive pronouns instead of possessive pronouns?Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Hi, in one of the quizzes, the answer to this question:
Ben ________ la alarma.Write ''Ben had been woken up by the alarm.was: había sido despertado porcould it also be "hubo sido"?
Hola,
In a Spanish show I've been watching, I often see the Object verb subject construction. What I would like to know is how prevalent this construction is in everyday Spanish. Are there situations where it is more commonly used?
Example.
Nos gustaría que sus cosas las tuvieran los niños.
Nos gustaría que los niños las tuvieran sus cosas.
*Sus cosas = Las cosas de sus hijas
I was wondering if there was a reply to his question below:
"didn't need to (infinitive) & needn't have (past participle) are used to express the lack of necessity in the past, ..."
The subtlety of this concept is lost on me. Can you explain in more detail the difference between these two sentences, please.
Hacía unos meses que trabajaba con su padre.
He had been working with his dad for a few months.
Trabajaba en la empresa desde hacía tres años.
He had been working in the company for 3 years.
My sentence:
Las chicas se sintieron mucho frio en esa casa grande
was corrected to:
Las chicas sintieron mucho frio en esa casa grande.
But isn’t sentir a reflexive verb in Spanish? Reflexive verbs are not very common in English.,
Google translate has:
I feel cold (English) – Me siento frio (Español) – Jeg føler mig kold (Danish, my language, which uses reflexion very much like Spanish)
Please explain!
Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Coudl you please add examples of compound sentences with theconjunction si? Or is it covered in another lesson?
the 'tu' form of ganar in the subjunctive is gana not ganes. It is only ganes in the negative.
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