Spanish language Q&A Forum

Some verbs in the preterite indefinido have tildes and some don't. Is there a rule for when they are used or not used, as i'm finding it difficult to remember when to use them?

Why are we using pues instead of porque in the first sentence to say because?

I don't understand the first example:

                         Lo he visto a él primero, y después a ella.

I understand the 'lo' to match the 'a él', but why doesn't the 'a ella' have a corresponding 'la'?

thanks

The quiz question I got for this lesson was:

“No entiendo (qué) te molesta tanto de mí.”

Is there a difference between saying the sentence above and saying “No entiendo lo que te molesta tanto de mí.” ?

Hola!

why (mi) in (para soprender a mi familia) is preceded by (a)? and what does it mean? 

Shouldn't it be se viste instead of viste?

Why isn't it 'Los estudiantes les dan los deberes al profesor'

I think it would also be helpful to have examples with the conjugates that still have 'z', so that we know how it sounds and how to pronounce it correctly.

With

Los que hayan reservado con antelación pueden ir a esa ventanilla.
The ones who booked in advance can go to that desk.

should the translations be can go to that window?