Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, I am not clear why “estaba” is used (imperfecto) but all the other verbs are in the pretérito tense. I have read all the lessons on this subject but still nearly always get the tense wrong. I think the guidance is that the pretérito is used when there is a specific beginning and end - but is that not the case with “mucha gente no estaba de acuerdo”?  Many thanks, Tony

As mentioned in the heading; I got this one wrong when I answered the question with the Spanish phrase 

 "Tú fuiste muy rápido a Salamanca.” 

As “you were the fastest of Salamanca” as the “a” doesnt immediately follow the fuiste. 

However this one says that ir is the correct answer and that the answer is “you went to Salamanca very quickly.” 

Wouldn’t that be translated as “tu fuiste a Salamanca muy rápido”? Doesn’t the change in order change the translation? Or is it because the a appears after the fui ‘somewhere’ in the sentence that it changes the meaning from ser to ir. 

This is one of the topics I have found very confusing. 

Kind regards; 

Fran 

Me gusta esta historia porque soy un granjero!

Hello.  Can you please explain why the definite article isn't used in this phrase?  Is it similar to the difference between "en casa" (at home) and "en la casa" (in the house, as in a physical location)?  Thank you!

I used "mirar" and that was corrected to "ver". Is the difference somewhat the same as the difference between "watch" and "see"?

In the Yucatan in Mexico, I have heard el derecho for straight ahead. It is quite confusing with 'la derecha' for the right. Todo recto is much better!

Why use the English translation there is or are,  when hay literally means to have? I would rather think of haber means to have in English. Its too confusing to use there is or there are for translating a Spanish verb that actually means to have. Thank you!