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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,109 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,051,871 learners
In the quiz I just took, I was supposed to translate "that famous film". I said "Esa película famosa" and was marked wrong. The answer was "aquella película famosa".
Given that the usage is somewhat subjective, and depends on how close the person feels to the object, shouldn't "esa" also be correct?
Edited to add: looks like I can't delete the question. I just went back to my quiz results, and it looks like there's a hint that I missed, that the speaker was feeling distant from the film. So that explains it.
"Me llamo Juan". I am confused because there is no verb. Is it incorrect to say "Me llamo es Juan"? Where else in Spanish are verbs omitted?
Gracias
Hi, what’s the difference between por donde and donde?
Thanks so much
Shirley.
three times the same example
Imna, I'm curious to know, how frequently this structure is used in Spanish? Moreover, is it more common in Spain than say in Central and/or South America?
P.S. When I first read this lesson my thoughts were similar to Alan's. I too recognized that there are similar 'past for present' verb structures in English.
Although I got the correct answer to this eg. Sin caerte , I don’t understand why the answer is informal but the question is formal. Sube and not Subes.
Usually the conditional tense adds "would" to the verb. E.g. comería, would eat; habría, would have; vendría, would come, etc. But "should" is not the same as "would". It implies a duty or obligation, whereas "would" does not.
So debería etc. seems to be an exception because it means "should" not "would"!
Paco ________ una manifestación en la ciudad. Your answer: Paco ha visto...Paco saw a demonstration in the city.(HINT: Conjugate “ver” in El Pretérito Perfecto)Why would this sentence use a perfect tense, when the event is clearly finished?Paco ha visto... - Paco has seen... is very different than Paco saw.
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