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5,991 questions • 9,794 answers • 1,008,000 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,991 questions • 9,794 answers • 1,008,000 learners
I forgot to drop it the first time, so I got a "nearly correct". The second time I dropped it, and it was still "nearly correct". - This I don't understand...
Como yo entiendo, "mejor te vas" es "you better go." Se puede usar "mejor + verbo en presente" como "you better..." lo que sea?" Tal como "mejor comes ya" o "mejor vienes pronto." Sé que podría decir "deberías comer ya" o "come rápido!" para expresar "you should eat now" y "eat quickly!" pero "you better eat now" y "you better come soon" son distintas en el tono. Y también el contexto es importante. Así la pregunta. ¡Gracias!
I am afraid I didn't meet , as yet, this expression in English and thus, I don't know its meaning. So, can't say if it is "por" or "para" ..
(probably the Spanish sentence has a well defined meaning but, with my poor Spanish, can't say what is this meaning..
I would like to ak why is the accent in the audio on the second syllable?
OK. I get it...I think! It is because the first clause expresses "emotion". Therefore it seems to be more a function of formality, a rule, not a matter of doubt. Because, I could be in fact happy that you travelled the world. Right? Or, is there another way to convey that "I am pleased that..." as fact and not use the subjunctive?
I appologize if I appear to be running in circles, and chasing my tail! I greatly appreciate your imput!
Why is it "Yo fui el primero DE mi clase" and not "Yo fui el primero EN mi clase" for "I was first in my class?" Is there any difference or is DE also acceptable?
Hola,
I'm intrigued that the threats are interpreted with a question mark, rather than an exclamation mark. Are they interchangeable?
Gracias,
Can you please explain why there is an accent on the e in imperative of 3rd person of sentir.
To me the syllabification prior to adding the se are sien.te. As the word ends in neither an a,s or n the accent falls on the last syllable ie “te”. Therefore, after the se is added should the accent not fall on the té?
Como / cuando / donde / quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish
I find it confusing. there is another note on this to indicate subjunctive with wherever, whoever etc.
is both the same thing with different ways of expressing or it is not the same thing?
call us whenever you get there
in this note, it says = llámame lleguen cuando lleguen
based on another notes, can i say ' llámame cuando lleguen' ?
are both the same?
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