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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,012 questions • 9,816 answers • 1,011,123 learners
Just a note that, by and large, a literal translation mostly works here as well, although the construction sounds a little English (vs. American) to me. To wit: "They will have gone to bed upon arriving at the hotel because the trip was very long" is perhaps an unusual phrasing in modern conversational (American) English, but certainly not an unintelligible one, and I think it carries the same meaning.
Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.I was waiting for you until I got bored and left.
Twice now I have entered 'estaba' but the correct answer is shown to be 'estuve'. I thought that when an action is either interrupted or where there is no specific beginning or end, it's the imperfect. Can you please clarify? Thank you.
Inma, I just wanted to say that this lesson is the best on the subject. No other place have I heard/seen the reference of "seeing the .......". This really helped me a lot to "get" these very interesting tenses. Thank you for sharing your insight/knowledge with us and your patience!
Esta lección me hizo reír...
As a very small child, I remember hearing the sentence, ¿Cómo que no? quite often. Perhaps a response to a refusal to do something? I don't think I was a disobedient toddler, so it must have been one of my siblings being a bit naughty, un poco rebelde o algo asi, haha ;))
Hello,
I have come across this: "haber hecho" as in:
"After having done this... Después de haber hecho esto... "
and searched here for this structure and found this lesson, but not this form for "haber hecho" nor did I find anything online except one site calling it an idiom.
I was wondering what part of speech "haber hecho" is, I can't find it as a tense and have not been able to find its grammatical term. I don't think this is an "idiom". Thanks for your help in claryfing this.
Nicole
Imna, I'm curious to know, how frequently this structure is used in Spanish? Moreover, is it more common in Spain than say in Central and/or South America?
P.S. When I first read this lesson my thoughts were similar to Alan's. I too recognized that there are similar 'past for present' verb structures in English.
Why is it "Yo fui el primero DE mi clase" and not "Yo fui el primero EN mi clase" for "I was first in my class?" Is there any difference or is DE also acceptable?
Ellos proveyeron de alimentos a los damnificados.
They provided food to the victims.
Where does the 'de' come from here?
ThanksIs it my imagination, or is the speaker saying "yo soy debajo" instead of "yo soy bajo"?
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