Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,831 answers • 1,013,906 learners
I'll be right with you...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,831 answers • 1,013,906 learners
Hello,
Still a bit confused on passive SE, and have a couple questions: (1) Do "no fault", "accidental" and "passive" SE all refer to the same thing? And (2) Would the correct Spanish translation for "Yesterday I fixed his computer, and he has already broken it" be "Ayer le arreglé la computadora (el ordenador) y ya se lo/le ha roto”. If correct, should I use “lo” (for “it”, the computer) or “le” as indirect object for “to him” (?). Thank you for your input and clarification.
In a previous question, mover was used in a present tense (Ella mueve...). However, in this quiz, mover was used in a reflexive tense (El perro se mueve). How do we know when to use or not use the reflexive tense?
This goes against everything else I have learned or am learning in the classroom - I cannot remember two sets of rules. Any correct answer should be marked as correct, whether the so-called Latin American version or Spanish version. There doesn't need to be only 1 correct answer.
I am a little confused with terminology. Are Preterite Indefinido and Preterite Perfecto the same thing? As others have highlighted, I am confused with the past perfect and preterite perfect.
Using esquiar as an example: I skied = Yo esquié; I have skied = He esquiado; I used to ski = Yo esquiaba; I have been skiing = Yo estaba esquiado. Am I wrong with these examples?
"Le compré flores."
Does this mean:
I bought her flowers (for her)
or
I bought flowers from her
How do I make it clearer, unambiguous?
Thank you.
'You probably haven't had a good breakfast' is translated as probablemente es que no habrás desayunado bien
My question is if the 'es que' is obligatory here?
Gracias
Buenas tardes Silvia y Inma,
I do understand the use of 'sentir' instead of 'oler' when referring to the 'being able to smell the aroma'. I was wondering though if 'sentir' is used in mainland Spain as well as in Latin America? Also, is 'sentir' used with any other of the 'senses', i.e. to touch, etc.?
Gracias.
Hi,
What is the difference in meaning between using the imperative tense as in "Los jubilados acababan de ..." and the present tense as in "Ustedes acaban de ..."?
Thanks.
Saludos,
Colin
ning
(in order) to direct the water into the tank is tranlated as para dirigir el agua hacia el tanque
I always thought that hacia was more towards and not necessarily entering. The lesson on hacia doesn't show entering.
For example, how could I distinguish between 'I walked towards the tunnel' and 'I walked into the tunnel' ?
Gracias
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level