Spanish language Q&A Forum

(1) Juan leyó más libros.

 (2) ¿A quién ha regalado Juan más libros? (Gramatica Descriptiva de Lengua Espanola 1999, p. 1181)

 Que yo sepa(cf. Rohena-Madrazo 2007 p.1), en (1) ‘más libros’ solo tiene una interpratación: comparativa, mientras que en (2) puede tener dos interpretaciones: comparativa o superlativa. Es decir, aunque en (2) no aparece el complemento restrictivo o coda superlativa, se puede interpretar como superlativa como (3).

 (3) ¿A quién de todos esos chicos ha regalado Juan más libros?

 Lo que me gustaría saber es qué es lo que hace posible que en (2) ‘más libros’ se pueda interpretar como superlativa. ¿ La frase-qu ‘a quién’ licenciaría tal interpretación? Es decir, la frase-qu ‘a quién’ jugaría un papel de asignarle  el significado superlativo a 'más libros'?

 ¿O el movimiento de ‘a quién’ al inicio de la oración(la posición de foco) crearía una circunstancia en que ‘más libros’ pueda obtener la interpretacion superlativa?

Muchas gracias por leer mi pregunta.

Those of us who are old enough to have been taught grammar and parsing will be familiar with the concept of indirect questions. Maybe if that could be added to the explanation it would be clearer than "at what moment in time". (For some of us "indirect question" will be more familiar than "indirect interrogative sentence" because of what we were taught at school.)

Also  "A ver" is, I believe, one of those impossible-to-translate phrases and the translation "Let's see"  might not immediately make native-English-speakers  think of indirect questions. When I thought about it some more I thought that "I wonder when..." might be clearer

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