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5,715 questions • 9,212 answers • 907,331 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,715 questions • 9,212 answers • 907,331 learners
What's the difference if I use 'todos los correos' instead in the first example?
Can "esto" be used as a demonstrative pronoun? For example, esto libro?
I don't want to quibble about details with native teachers but I was puzzled by the tip box at the bottom of this lesson saying "Remember that after poder(conjugated in any tense) you will always find an infinitive. "
I'm unsure what to make of this given that I have not always found an infinitive after poder. The example that immediately came to mind was "No puedo más." Which I stuck out in my mind precisely because I found it odd that "puedo" was NOT followed by another verb.
There are a number of good questions below about the use of the preterite vs the imperfect. There is some confusion about the speaker choosing to bend the rules in order to express an action in a certain way. This is a very useful topic and might be a good lesson of its own, "When the speaker bends the rules for a specific reason".
why would there be accent on vosotros form sometimes and sometimes not?
why does "a tan solo 2 minutos de empezar" mean "2 minutes before starting" but "a los 2 minutos de empezar" mean "2 minutes after starting"?.. why does the meaning change because of an added word?
Why is there a “th” sound in 19 or is this Castilian pronunciation?
I know this lesson gives a short explanation about what this topic is but I feel like it does not do a good job of truly explaining the subject it just gives examples. So would you be able to explain to me how to actually talk about habits in the past?
La narradora dice “las pilas” pero el texto dice “la pilas”, y el programa te corrige si escribes “las pilas” en tu transcripción. Me gusta esta expresión que no conocía antes. Creo que ya la entiendo, pero tal vez merezca una pequeña nota. ¡Gracias!
Is it correct, in addition to "Whose books are those?" that this could also be translated as "From whom are those books?" I realize that in a perfect world, the context would clear up any ambiguity, but am I correct that the latter is a valid translation?
Thanks!
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