Spanish language Q&A Forum

Many years ago in a Mexican Spanish school I was taught that in a sentence like.  No creo que Susana venga/haya venido hoy only those 2 options are correct. The imperfect and pluperfect subjunctive are only used if the verb in the main clause is in a past tense. There seems to be disagreement on this topic. What does RAE say?  Is there regional variation on this topic?

"Sería tan romántico que mas las diera" is a B2 construction.

Hi, i cannot see any transcript about this reading passage. i can just listen to it. what can be the problem?

Why do some of the verbs get tildas?

se lo quiero comprar becomes comprárselo

and 

se lo estamos decorando becomes estamos decorándoselo

In this sentence:  "Les lazo la pelota y deben apagarla con las dos manos."  

I throw you the ball, and you must stop it with two hands.

I don't understand the use of 'Les" is it referring to 'you"?

What is impeative?