Spanish language Q&A Forum

Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...

Worth a trip to Spain just to hear Inma speak . . .

Creo que no   -Wouldn't this call the subjunctive (conozca) NOT the present indicative?

The time is last month, why don't we use Era posible and lead to other hubiera PP?

Justin

Hola!

I started doing the relative pronoun lessons and quizzes before I even had a complete understanding of what a relative clause was!! (Maybe some different organization of the B2 lessons would alleviate this for other students???)

I needed more understanding so I did a search, and lo and behold, I found this lesson and the lights came on!! 

I get it now and it makes perfect sense to me. 

Thank you so much for this lesson Inma! (I see it's quite recent)

As a forever student, the lessons and explanations make learning Spanish so much fun for me and have taken my studying and learning to a whole new level. 

I really love the dictation and writing exercises!!  I was wanting to train my ear to hear better and these exercises fit the bill perfectly!!

 I'm so glad I found Kwiziq!!

Muchas Muchas Gracias y Feliz Navidad!!

Just did this lesson and saw the word "cross". Although it does make sense in old English and some people will still understand the meaning, it is definitely not a word that is used a lot among English speakers today. I think "angry" would be a better word and would reduce the likelihood of someone not understanding what it means.