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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,955 questions • 9,736 answers • 991,947 learners
Hola Inma,
The translation of the above is given as “Come up here without stepping on the white floor tiles.” This sounds like an imperative, so would it be one of the appropriate conjugations ¡Ve/Vea! etc? Or is it a typo?
Saludos. John
Why were there no quotation marks placed around the word "manolos" in the Kwiziq translation of the penultimate sentence?
Thank you.
Pati Ecuamiga
This is more of a complaint that a question. There is confusion in tense nomenclature. What is often referred to here as Pretérito Perfecto is really Pretérito Perfecto Compuesto.
The Pretérito Perfecto Simple is referred to Pretérito Indefinido. The action in the Pretérito Perfecto Simple has definitely been "perfected". When doing quizzes quickly I often make a mistake when the Pretérito Perfecto is asked for. It would be nice if a uniform terminology were used in the teaching of Spanish
My memory is poor and when writing in the listening exercises I really need to hear the dictation twice in most sections. It seems we can only listen once to each section?
So here, quemar is indicative. Would the subjunctive queme also be acceptable in this sentence? Or does the si prompt indicative only?
(Translation for the interested: Dalí would say that if the Prado Museum burned down, he would save only this painting.)
really are the subjunctive cases all that important to the idea of the narrative? the tense does not matter. the thought she is processing is entirely subjunctive
and accumulative: both backward, present and forward looking. She faces a complicated decision and does not take it lightly so she considers the established
track record of the relationship, family and social pressures to marry, and whether this situation meets her needs.
Desde dos años vs hace dos años, which one to use over the other ? Both means the same doesn’t it ? How to answer the test correctly then ?
In the lesson on 'Para mí que' it gives its use as - 'we simply express having a feeling, an inkling about something happening'
The English text here says 'What amazes me...' Surely that's stronger than an inkling!
It also says 'esta sigue siendo un medio de lo más popular' Why isn't it 'este' as it refers to the masculine word medio
Gracias
For these three examples, wouldn't it be:
¿Tú no te sientes nada por ella?
Vosotros os sentís un gran amor por la naturaleza.
Él se siente una gran alegría.
Just a question -- will all these exercises have the Spanish accent from Spain? I am hoping to near Latin American
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