Spanish language Q&A Forum

why is  No todavía hemos cenado. marked wrong

It seems to indicate that:

bien and mal go with estar

bueno and malo go with ser

but when I follow that as a "rule" I get it wrong. What am I missing please? What is the "reason" either goes with whatever?

Thankfully I do receive the weekend workouts by email, but my preferred method is to select from the Weekend Workouts page, especially for catching up. The last one listed was 20th May 2022 and it's now 10th July.

https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/weekend-workouts 

Will this be updated? 

Thank you!

Hola Inma,

I wonder if this is the case of leísmo, since the verb mirar is a trasitive one and my answer "lo mirábamos" was accepted as correct. Also, what is the diference between mirar and ver? 

Muchas gracias

Ελισάβετ

The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below. 

1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre. 

I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not. 

1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre. 

in one of the examples,

Verás, el chico se va a enfadar y va a coger y le va a dar un puñetazo.

You'll see, the guy is going to get cross and he's going to go and give him a punch.

where does 'se va + a' comes from? is this irse with other meanings?

Could you direct me to the appropriate lesson?

thanks

In answering this question, I used "excepto por".  The lesson doesn't cover this option, but I have seen it in written Spanish.

Except for the white one, all the t-shirts are cool.

    I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.

    The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."

    Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.

    Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una). 

    Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:

"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.