Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Inma, I have been trying to work out why both direct and indirect objects are present here. 

I can't find a reference for a pronominal form of pensar, but on doing the exercise a second time, I noticed that the lesson for the se aspectual was listed as being relevant. Poder isn't given as one of the verbs that typically can take this construction, but does this explain why the reflexive pronoun is being used here, making the verb poder more "intense / complete" as explained in the example of "irse" in the lesson; .... or is there another explanation altogether. Espero que puedas ayudarme. Saludos. John

Hola,

The sentence above was the answer to a recent question.

I don't understand the need for nosotros.  Could you please explain.

Muchas gracias.

Saludos,

Colin

I read elsewhere that when quedar is used to express the idea of ending up in an emotional or physical state, it does not require reflexive pronoun. Is this accurate ? So if I have a scenario of 2 persons fighting and the one of them left a mark on the second and it left him standing still from the shock. Do we use ‘se queda inmóvil’ or ‘queda inmóvil’ ?

Hola,

As a matter of interest, what would the difference in meaning be if 'por' were substituted for 'para'.

The online translator I use says that they are the same.

Gracias.

Colin

In a test, I got the question "Yo _____ mis manos en el agua". The verb was sumergir. Is it more correct to say "mis manos" here than "las manos" and if so, why? Are there certain verbs you are more likely to or would always use the possessive rather than definite?

As an extremely well-educated native North American speaker trying to learn Latin American Spanish, I find the semantics in this lesson frustrating. This is punctuated by all the comments seen here. There is insufficient context provided. For example (ignoring the hint since hints aren't given in real life), one of the quiz questions asks to translate: "They are having ice cream." I would immediately think "Están tomando helado." - or perhaps "desfrutando" given some of the loose lesson translations. However, to think: "Van a tomar helado." I need further context. For example: "They are having ice cream this afternoon." - "Van a tomar helado esta tarde." Otherwise in English you are much less ambivalent saying: "They are going to have ice cream." I understand both sides of the arguments and I fall more on the side of "They are going to have," but a better solution is to provide a more complete explanation and context in the lesson, after all, it is more common to say "They are going to have." Concede that we use the exact same literal expression in both Spanish and English but then take it further in the lesson to explain the nuanced differences in English thought compared to Spanish thought. 

From the examples given it's hard to tell why a native speaker would choose one of these adverbs in preference to another one in any given situation. Is there any guidance on this? Why would I choose 'igual' over 'lo mismo', for example, if they both mean the same thing?  

Hi Inma, a suggestion, give an example with decir. Or would this be incorrect? E.g. Le dijo a ella. He told her. (She is affected in some way by him telling her).