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6,055 questions • 9,905 answers • 1,027,186 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,055 questions • 9,905 answers • 1,027,186 learners
Me alegra que ellos sean los primeros.
Why is this subjunctive? Is it because it comes after "que"? This sentence doesn't seem to express any doubt about their being the first.
Could I say "me alegra que ser el primero?" if I were talking about myself or would I have to write "me alegra que yo sea el primero"?
I answered "alguno," but apparently the answer is "algunos." I don't understand why based on this quote from the lesson. Thanks!
"Sometimes, when alguno and alguna are used in affirmative sentences, it has the nuance of "some random something/someone", "one or two" or "the odd one". The idea is non-specific in number and can refer to one or more items. It does agree in gender but not in number: even if it refers to a plural noun, the pronoun is in the singular form, not the plural form."
When do you use “de bajo de” versus just “bajo” for under? Also why does lobster not have the definite article? Thanks.
Is it possible to turn off the spanish vos form?
This seems like a very basic lesson, I was surprised to find this in the B1 lesson.
in the hints you define "terrorífico" as meaning "terrifyingly" but then in the translation you count that as wrong and use "terrorificamente" instead.
you say "some fake drops of blood" but a better English translation would be "drops of fake blood". The drops are real; the blood is fake.
Am I right in thinking that this form of relative cannot be used at all after a preposition?
Dying one's hair is something which maybe be done oneself or by professionals. Am I to understand that the construction of a sentence about hair dye is the same regardless of whether one does it to oneself or has it done by professionals? Are we left to infer which is the case based on how good the resultant hair looks?
I suppose this is similar in English wherein someone might observe "you cut your hair" as readily as "you got a haircut" but with rare exceptions (thinking of my brother circa age 4) intend to imply even in the first case that you yourself cut your own hair.
When does, if ever, the se change to me for example?
'If Cristina had married him' - why is 'se hubiera casada' marked wrong?
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