Spanish language Q&A Forum

Two sentences from today's lessons for me:

1. ?Vosotras pudisteis reservar ese hotel tan barato?

2. Lo he visto a él primero, y después de ella.

In both sentences, the accented stress on the recording is on the last syllable of the last word. I like to listen to all the sentences without looking and make sure I understand what is said.  This pronunciation fools me every time.  Why is it not on the penultimate syllable?  Is this regional?

Why is this being translated "menos entresantes que" in this test, but was translated "menos entresante que" in the exact same question earlier today?

Using El Pretérito Imerfecto in the Gabriel example above seems incorrect/confusing to me, also. Correct me if I'm wrong, but doesn't the imperfect here indicate a general inability to do something, like Gabriel just didn't know how to put the key in the keyhole (incidentally, the sentence should read "key in the keyhole", "keyS in the keyholeS", or "key in the keyholeS" if a single key fits two locks), which seems highly unlikely? It seems to me that El Pretérito Indefinido is more appropriate because: Gabriel didn't manage/succeed in putting the key in the keyhole, and we are referring to a specific moment in the past and the time when it happened is relevant.

Hello,

one of the sentences to be translated was: They were even better than in my dreams.

Why isn't it "mejores" here? "Eran aún mejores que en mis sueños."

Thanks!

I used "Cuál" thinking that what's on television is a limited, although large, selection.  Like the example: "Cuál es tu flor favorita".

Why is "Qué" used here?