Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have noticed in general that spanish speakers have different intonations at the end of sentences or part of sentences which confuse the listener and in dictations result in incorrect  punctuation. 

I need to listen at a lower level than this.  Can we go back to the beginning?

I’ve read the explanation for the lesson several times but I still can’t understand the answer from the quiz below:

Prompt: No fui al trabajo, ________ sino porque estaba enferma.

I didn't go to work, not because I didn't want to see my boss but because I was ill.

Hola,

The sentence above was the answer to a recent question.

I don't understand the need for nosotros.  Could you please explain.

Muchas gracias.

Saludos,

Colin

Hola Inma,

The text has an opening question which I answered as "¿A quién no le apetece......?" and was marked incorrect. Shouldn't there be an accent on "quién"?

Also in the final sentence, I'm sure that the speaker doesn't say "las ensaladas" but it is included in the text. 

Saludos

John

As an extremely well-educated native North American speaker trying to learn Latin American Spanish, I find the semantics in this lesson frustrating. This is punctuated by all the comments seen here. There is insufficient context provided. For example (ignoring the hint since hints aren't given in real life), one of the quiz questions asks to translate: "They are having ice cream." I would immediately think "Están tomando helado." - or perhaps "desfrutando" given some of the loose lesson translations. However, to think: "Van a tomar helado." I need further context. For example: "They are having ice cream this afternoon." - "Van a tomar helado esta tarde." Otherwise in English you are much less ambivalent saying: "They are going to have ice cream." I understand both sides of the arguments and I fall more on the side of "They are going to have," but a better solution is to provide a more complete explanation and context in the lesson, after all, it is more common to say "They are going to have." Concede that we use the exact same literal expression in both Spanish and English but then take it further in the lesson to explain the nuanced differences in English thought compared to Spanish thought. 

In this example, "No me gusta nada ir de compras" why the preposition DE after the word NADA was omitted?