Spanish language Q&A Forum

So, how does Portuguese get into the mix of official languages? Is there a native African language first and then Spanish? And the French?

From the examples given it's hard to tell why a native speaker would choose one of these adverbs in preference to another one in any given situation. Is there any guidance on this? Why would I choose 'igual' over 'lo mismo', for example, if they both mean the same thing?  

Unless this is a britishism I am unfamiliar with, I think you mean "review" instead of "revise".

I noticed that "lunch" was turned into a noun in the English translation. That really is not necessary because every English speaker is familiar with "lunch" being used as a verb. It is not common, but not improper or unknown. If Spanish speakers think of it as a verb, then it can only help learners to think of it as a verb as well, no?

Hola Inma,

why the personal "a" is omitted here? - representar a las mujeres 

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

I understand when the pronoun replace a thing use Los or Las, lo or la but the quiz is using Los to replace a miguel y a Jose.  is the hing that an artricle is in front of the names

Hola Inma,

When referring to 'around' a given time, is 'a eso de' the only way to express an approximate time? 

Gracias y saludos 

Kwizbot:  y el código de vestimenta dice que

I: y dice el código de vestimenta que

How much less preferable is my response to Kwibot's here?

There was a test question that said ´8 a 10´ means the same thing as ´8 menos 10´ but this guide doesn´t mention it.

Are they interchangeable?